Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 2 — Questions & Solutions

Which country is scheduled to host the G20 Leaders' Summit in 2026?

The Booker Prize 2025 was awarded to David Szalay for which novel?

In 2024, the Bharat Ratna was conferred on five persons. Which of the following was NOT among the 2024 recipients?

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem' embodies which principle of natural justice?

The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' conveys that:

In Salmond's analytical jurisprudence, a 'right in rem' is best described as a right that is:

Which jurist is most closely associated with the 'Pure Theory of Law' (the Grundnorm)?

The maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' means:

Pick the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'ABROGATE'.

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'The accused was ______ of all charges after the prosecution failed to lead any credible evidence.'

If in a certain code 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', how is 'JUDGE' written in the same code?

A man pointing to a photograph says, 'She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather.' How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?

In a row of 25 students facing north, Ravi is 11th from the left end. What is his position from the right end?

Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India, taking oath in November 2025 on the retirement of Justice B.R. Gavai?

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado. She is associated with the democratic struggle in which country?

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem', which forms a pillar of natural justice, means:

India won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025 by defeating which team in the final played at Dubai?

In jurisprudence, the maxim 'ignorantia juris non excusat' conveys that:

The Booker Prize 2025 was awarded to the novel 'Flesh'. Who is its author?

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EPHEMERAL':

Who is the incumbent Attorney General for India, re-appointed for a further two-year term with effect from 1 October 2025?

A clock loses 5 minutes every hour. If it is set correctly at 12:00 noon, what time will the clock show when the true time is 6:00 p.m. the same day?

The maxim 'res ipsa loquitur', frequently invoked in the law of torts (negligence), means:

Under the Constitution of India, the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

Select the correctly spelt word:

The legal maxim 'volenti non fit injuria' refers to the defence that:

Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to declare any law that it has pronounced upon as binding on all courts within the territory of India?

Who, among the following, assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025?

The Latin maxim 'audi alteram partem', a cardinal principle of natural justice, means:

Choose the word most OPPOSITE in meaning to 'CANDID'.

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Each of the petitioners (a)/ have submitted (b)/ their affidavits (c)/ within time. (d)'

Select the one-word substitution for 'That which cannot be revoked or taken back'.

Choose the word which is most similar in meaning (synonym) to the word 'PERFUNCTORY':

Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning (antonym) to the word 'CANDID':

One word substitution: A person who knows many foreign languages is called a/an —

From the following words, the MIS-SPELT word is —

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The witness gave such a ____ account of the incident that the court accepted it without doubt.

One word substitution: A government by the wealthy class is known as —

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: 'To bury the hatchet'.

Select the grammatically correct sentence:

One who walks on a rope (especially at a height) is called a —

Choose the word most opposite in meaning (antonym) to 'FRUGAL':

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: The judge presided ____ the proceedings with great patience.

Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of 'EPHEMERAL':

One word substitution: A statement that is open to more than one interpretation is said to be —

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: Despite repeated warnings, his ____ refusal to obey the rules led to his suspension.

Choose the correctly punctuated and grammatical sentence:

Choose the word which is most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'PERFUNCTORY'.

Choose the word which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'GARRULOUS'.

Select the option that gives the correct one-word substitution for: 'A person who hates or distrusts mankind.'

From the following words, identify the MIS-SPELT word.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'The judge delivered a ______ verdict, weighing every piece of evidence before reaching her conclusion.'

Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word 'EPHEMERAL'.

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an ERROR: 'Neither the witnesses nor the accused (a)/ were able to recall (b)/ the exact sequence of events (c)/ on that fateful night. (d)'

Choose the correct one-word substitution for: 'A statement that contradicts itself and yet might be true.'

Select the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'FRUGAL'.

Under Section 96(4) CPC, no appeal lies EXCEPT on a question of law from a decree in any suit of the nature cognizable by Courts of Small Causes when the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed:

A decree which determines the rights of the parties with regard to all or any of the matters in controversy but does not completely dispose of the suit is termed:

The inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court is preserved by:

A suit for the recovery of immovable property, or for the determination of any right to or interest in immovable property, shall, under Section 16 CPC, ordinarily be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:

Before instituting a suit against the Government or a public officer in respect of an act purporting to be done in his official capacity, the plaintiff must serve a notice under Section 80 CPC of:

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a civil court has jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those of which their cognizance is:

For the doctrine of res judicata under Section 11 CPC to apply, the matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit must have been:

Under Section 80 CPC, no suit (save where urgent relief is sought with leave) shall be instituted against the Government until the expiration of:

A caveat lodged under Section 148A CPC, unless an application is made before the caveator's right to appear arises, remains in force for a period not exceeding:

An appeal to the High Court under Section 100 CPC (second appeal) lies only where the case involves:

Where an appeal has been heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court, Section 100A CPC provides that:

The revisional jurisdiction of the High Court under Section 115 CPC can be exercised in respect of a case decided by a subordinate court in which:

The power to transfer a suit, appeal or other proceeding from one court to another subordinate to the same High Court, and within the local limits of its jurisdiction, is conferred on the High Court and the District Court by:

Section 144 CPC, which obliges the court to place the parties in the position they would have occupied had the decree not been passed when it is varied or reversed, embodies the doctrine of:

Under Section 89 CPC, where it appears to the court that there exist elements of a settlement acceptable to the parties, the court may refer the dispute to all of the following EXCEPT:

Order I Rule 10 CPC, dealing with the addition, substitution and striking out of parties, is founded on the principle that no suit shall be defeated by reason of the:

Order II Rule 2 CPC, which requires every suit to include the whole of the claim the plaintiff is entitled to make in respect of the cause of action, is designed primarily to prevent:

Under Order VI Rule 17 CPC, after the trial has commenced, an application for amendment of pleadings shall be allowed only if the court is satisfied that:

An application to set aside an ex parte decree under Order IX Rule 13 CPC may be allowed where the defendant satisfies the court that:

A question whether a particular sale of immovable property held in execution should be set aside on the ground of a material irregularity or fraud in publishing or conducting it is dealt with under Order XXI CPC, the order relating to:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the doctrine of res sub judice, which bars the trial of a subsequently instituted suit where the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, is contained in:

A second appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies to the High Court only where the High Court is satisfied that the case involves:

Where a court is satisfied that a foreign judgment has been produced by way of a certified copy purporting to be such, the Code of Civil Procedure directs the court to presume that it was pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction, unless the contrary appears on the record or is proved. This presumption is provided in:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the power of restitution, enabling the court which passed a decree to place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for a decree that has since been varied or reversed, is contained in:

Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a defendant is ordinarily required to present a written statement of his defence within thirty days from the date of service of summons, and the court may for recorded reasons extend this period, but in no case beyond:

Under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023, a convict under sentence of death may file a mercy petition before the President or the Governor within how many days from the date the Superintendent of jail informs him of the dismissal of his appeal, review or special leave petition -

Under Section 184 of the BNSS, 2023, where the offence of rape is under investigation, the woman shall be sent for medical examination by a registered medical practitioner within how many hours from the receipt of information relating to the commission of the offence -

Under Section 230 of the BNSS, 2023, in a case instituted on a police report, the copies of the police report and other documents are to be supplied free of cost to the accused and the victim within a period of -

Under Section 283 of the BNSS, 2023, in cases of theft, dishonest misappropriation or receiving or retaining stolen property, summary trial is permissible only where the value of the property concerned does not exceed -

Under Section 413 of the BNSS, 2023, a victim is conferred a right to prefer an appeal against an order of the court in which of the following situations -

The repeal of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the saving of pending appeals, applications, trials, inquiries and investigations under the old Code is provided for in which provision of the BNSS, 2023 -

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a cognizable offence is punishable with imprisonment for less than three years and the person to be arrested is infirm or above sixty years of age, the police officer shall not arrest such person without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

The provision in the BNSS, 2023 enabling registration of a First Information Report at any police station irrespective of the area where the offence is committed (the 'Zero FIR'), is contained in:

Which one of the following is the correct corresponding provision of the BNSS, 2023 for the procedure when investigation cannot be completed within twenty-four hours (formerly Section 167 CrPC), dealing with authorisation of detention by the Magistrate?

Under Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023, an accused (not a first-time offender and not charged with a life-imprisonment offence) facing trial shall be released on bail by the Court once he has undergone detention for a period extending up to:

Under Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023, the benefit of release on bond on completing one-third of the maximum period of imprisonment is available to a person who:

Under the BNSS, 2023, the Magistrate is required to supply to the accused, free of cost, a copy of the police report and other documents, within how many days from the date of production or appearance of the accused?

Under the BNSS, 2023, the visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence and to videograph the process has been made mandatory in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for a term of:

The BNSS, 2023 introduces, for the first time, a statutory procedure for inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender. This provision is contained in:

Under Section 472 of the BNSS, 2023, a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir or relative) may file a mercy petition before the President or Governor within what period from the date the jail Superintendent informs him of the dismissal of his appeal/review by the Supreme Court or confirmation of the death sentence?

Under the BNSS, 2023, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment up to ten years, police custody (in instalments not exceeding fifteen days in the whole) may be sought by the police only within the first:

Where a Magistrate empowered under Section 210 of the BNSS orders an investigation under Section 175(3) on an application, the Supreme Court has held that, unlike the position under Section 156(3) CrPC, the Magistrate must additionally:

Under the BNSS, 2023, the duty cast on every State Government to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme to ensure protection of witnesses is contained in:

Under the BNSS, 2023, the process of conducting a search of a place or taking possession of property is, where the police officer is able to do so, required to be recorded through audio-video electronic means. This requirement is provided in:

Which one of the following statements regarding the commencement and repeal effected by the BNSS, 2023 is correct?

Under the BNSS, 2023, for an offence under specified provisions of the BNS relating to sexual offences against women, the investigation is required to be completed within:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, a person commits a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to less than seven years. Before arresting such a person, the conditions and the obligation to issue a written notice for appearance are dealt with under:

The concept of a 'Zero FIR', permitting information of a cognizable offence to be recorded by any police station irrespective of the area in which the offence is committed, has for the first time been given express statutory recognition in the BNSS under:

Under the BNSS, where a complaint is made to a Magistrate against an accused, the proviso to the relevant section now mandates that no cognizance of the offence shall be taken without first giving the accused an opportunity of being heard. This requirement appears in:

The offence of sedition (Section 124A of the repealed IPC) has been replaced under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 by the offence of 'acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India', contained in:

'Organised crime' has, for the first time, been defined and made punishable as a substantive offence in the general criminal code by:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'terrorist act' is dealt with in:

Where a woman dies of burns or bodily injury otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of her marriage and had been subjected to cruelty in connection with a demand for dowry, the offence of dowry death under Section 80 BNS is punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:

Abetment of suicide is punishable under Section 108 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to:

A child aged six years, in play, sets fire to a haystack which spreads and causes damage. With respect to this act of the child under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:

Criminal conspiracy is defined under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

The offence of rape is defined under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Where five or more persons acting in concert voluntarily cause grievous hurt to a person on the ground of his caste, under Section 117(4) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 each member of the group shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to:

'A' is entrusted with the funds of a company as its accountant and dishonestly converts the money to his own use. The general punishment for this offence of criminal breach of trust under Section 316(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 may extend to:

Under Section 318 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a person who cheats and thereby dishonestly induces the person deceived to deliver any property is punishable with imprisonment of either description which may extend to:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the substantive offence of 'murder' is defined and the punishment for it is prescribed, respectively, in:

Section 101(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduces a distinct provision for so-called 'mob lynching'. It applies where murder is committed on grounds such as race, caste, sex, language or personal belief by a group of:

Which of the following is recognised as a form of punishment under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, but was NOT a punishment listed in Section 53 of the repealed Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the newly carved-out offence of 'snatching' is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:

Under Section 308 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an offence is 'dacoity' only when the number of persons conjointly committing or attempting (including those aiding) a robbery is:

Under Section 79 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, for a death to be a 'dowry death' it must be shown that the woman died otherwise than under normal circumstances within how many years of her marriage?

Under Section 20 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, nothing is an offence which is done by:

Under Section 137 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'kidnapping or maiming a child for purposes of begging' relates to a child below the age of:

In which case did the Supreme Court of India strike down the 99th Constitutional Amendment and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014 as violative of the basic structure?

The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India, whereby the President may refer a question of law or fact of public importance for its opinion, is provided under:

The original and exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States is conferred by:

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, dealing with disqualification on the ground of defection, was added by which Amendment and is referable to which Articles?

The power of the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment, and to suspend, remit or commute sentences, is contained in:

Which Article of the Constitution empowers a High Court to issue writs not only for enforcement of fundamental rights but also 'for any other purpose'?

Under the Constitution of India, the right to constitutional remedies, that is, the right to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III, is itself a fundamental right guaranteed by:

Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden under which Article of the Constitution?

The procedure for amendment of the Constitution of India is laid down in:

In which case did the Supreme Court first propound the doctrine that Parliament cannot amend the 'basic structure' of the Constitution under Article 368?

The Directive Principle requiring the State to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife of the country is contained in:

Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys is provided for under which Article of the Constitution?

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described which Article of the Constitution of India as "the very heart and soul of the Constitution"?

The remedy under Article 32 for enforcement of Fundamental Rights differs from the writ jurisdiction under Article 226 chiefly in that:

The Fundamental Duties contained in Article 51A of the Constitution of India are placed in:

The 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) was introduced by inserting clauses (6) into Articles 15 and 16 of the Constitution through which Amendment?

In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), the Supreme Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule:

A significant distinction between the pardoning power of the President under Article 72 and that of the Governor under Article 161 is that:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a confession made to a police officer is dealt with by which section?

When a person makes a statement as to the cause of his death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death, and the cause of his death comes into question, such a statement (dying declaration) is made relevant under which provision of the BSA, 2023?

The opinion of an expert upon a point of foreign law, science, art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, is relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the burden of proof generally lies on the person who:

Where any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him. This rule is contained in which section of the BSA, 2023?

The doctrine of estoppel, whereby a person who has by his declaration, act or omission caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon it is precluded from denying its truth, is embodied in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the protection of communications made during marriage between spouses is governed by:

Which section of the BSA, 2023 declares that an accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, and that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact. This rule is found in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the order in which witnesses are examined is that they shall be first examined-in-chief, then cross-examined, and then re-examined. This order is laid down in:

Under the BSA, 2023, when a party who calls a witness finds the witness adverse, the Court may in its discretion permit that party to put any question to the witness which might be put in cross-examination. This power to deal with a hostile witness flows from:

Leading questions, as a rule, must not be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination if objected to, except with the permission of the Court. This provision is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Judge's power to put any question he pleases, in any form, at any time, to any witness or to the parties, and to order production of any document or thing, in order to discover or obtain proof of relevant facts, is conferred by:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence. The definition of 'primary evidence' is found in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, if a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence until at least one attesting witness has been called for the purpose of proving its execution (if such a witness is alive and capable of giving evidence). This requirement is laid down in:

Under Section 31(7)(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the arbitral award is for the payment of money and does not direct otherwise, the sum directed to be paid shall carry interest from the date of the award to the date of payment at the rate of:

Conciliation proceedings under Part III of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 are deemed to commence when:

Under Section 73 and Section 74 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a settlement agreement reached in conciliation has:

Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with the enforcement of foreign awards. Awards under the New York Convention are dealt with in Chapter I of Part II, while Chapter II deals with awards under the:

Where, in a domestic arbitration, the court finds that the proceedings have been delayed for reasons attributable to the arbitral tribunal, Section 29A(4) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 empowers the court, while extending the period for making the award, to order reduction of the fees of the arbitrator(s) by an amount:

Under Section 9(3) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 (as inserted by the 2015 Amendment), once the arbitral tribunal has been constituted, the court:

The ground that the arbitral award is vitiated by 'patent illegality appearing on the face of the award', codified in Section 34(2A) by the 2015 Amendment, is available for setting aside:

Where a person falls within a category set out in the Seventh Schedule, rendering him ineligible to be appointed an arbitrator under Section 12(5) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996, the parties may waive the applicability of that sub-section:

In 'In Re: Interplay between Arbitration Agreements under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 and the Indian Stamp Act, 1899' (2023), the seven-Judge Constitution Bench held that an arbitration agreement contained in an unstamped or insufficiently stamped instrument is:

In Cox and Kings Ltd. v. SAP India Pvt. Ltd. (2023), the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court affirmed the 'Group of Companies' doctrine, anchoring the binding of a non-signatory to an arbitration agreement principally in:

Under Section 8(1) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 (as amended in 2015), a judicial authority before which an action is brought in a matter that is the subject of an arbitration agreement shall refer the parties to arbitration:

The right of general lien, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, is conferred by Section 171 of the Indian Contract Act on bankers, factors, wharfingers, policy-brokers and:

As a general rule under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, an agent acting for a disclosed principal:

'A' offers a reward to anyone who finds and returns his lost dog. 'B', knowing of the offer, finds and returns the dog. The acceptance of A's offer is governed by the principle that:

Under Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act, an agreement not enforceable by law is said to be:

A contract whereby one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or of any other person is, under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, a contract of:

When the consent of a party to an agreement is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is:

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is termed:

Consent obtained by which of the following renders the contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused under Section 19?

Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is, under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

A person entitled to file a suit is a minor at the time from which the prescribed period would otherwise begin to run. Under Section 6 of the Limitation Act, 1963, he may institute the suit:

A suit is founded on the fraud of the defendant, the knowledge of which was concealed from the plaintiff. Under Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation does not begin to run until:

In a suit, the plaintiff seeks to exclude, under Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the time spent prosecuting an earlier proceeding. Such exclusion is available where the earlier proceeding was:

Once the period of limitation has begun to run, the principle under Section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is that:

In the case of a continuing breach of contract or a continuing tort, Section 22 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that:

An application for execution of a decree of a Delhi civil court is governed by Article 136 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, which prescribes a period of:

Where the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 prescribes no specific period for a suit, the residuary Article 113 applies, fixing the period at:

Under the Limitation Act, 1963, where the prescribed period for a suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is closed, the proceeding may be instituted, preferred or made:

The remedy of 'substituted performance' introduced by the 2018 amendment is contained in which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

Under Section 20A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, no injunction shall be granted by a court in a suit involving a contract relating to:

Section 20C of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, dealing with expeditious disposal of suits, provides that a suit filed under the Act in respect of a contract relating to an infrastructure project shall be disposed of within:

Under Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, in a suit for specific performance of a contract, the plaintiff may also claim:

In Patil Automation Pvt. Ltd. v. Rakheja Engineers Pvt. Ltd. (2022), the Supreme Court held that non-compliance with the mandatory pre-institution mediation under Section 12A must result in:

Under Section 12A, the process of pre-institution mediation under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 is to be conducted by authorities constituted under which enactment?

A settlement arrived at by the parties through pre-institution mediation under Section 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 shall have the same status and effect as:

In the absence of any trade usage to the contrary, the implied authority of a partner under Section 19 does NOT empower him to:

Subject to a contract between the partners, the goodwill of the business of a firm is:

A person who is a minor may, with the consent of all the partners for the time being:

After the POCSO (Amendment) Act, 2019, where penetrative sexual assault under Section 3 is committed on a child below sixteen years of age, the minimum punishment under Section 4(2) shall not be less than:

Which of the following punishments was introduced for aggravated penetrative sexual assault under Section 6 of the POCSO Act by the 2019 Amendment, in addition to imprisonment?

Where a person erroneously or fraudulently represents that he is authorised to transfer certain immovable property and professes to transfer it for consideration, and subsequently acquires an interest in that property, the transferee may, at his option, claim that interest. This doctrine of 'feeding the grant by estoppel' is embodied in: