Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 3 — Questions & Solutions

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado, a pro-democracy leader from which country?

Choose the word that is the antonym of 'ABROGATE':

Under the doctrine of jurisprudence, the maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' signifies that:

The Booker Prize 2025 was won by David Szalay for his novel:

A train running at 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?

The 2024 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences was awarded to Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson and James A. Robinson for their studies on:

In legal terminology, the phrase 'ratio decidendi' refers to:

If in a certain code 'JUDGE' is written as 'KVEHF', then how is 'COURT' written in that code?

Who is the present President of India (as in 2025)?

The maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' conveys the principle that:

Choose the correctly spelt word:

Find the next term in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ___ ?

In jurisprudence, the doctrine 'stare decisis' requires that:

Who assumed office as the Chief Justice of India in November 2025, becoming the 53rd holder of that office?

The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 inserted Article 239AA, by which the Union territory of Delhi was renamed and given a Legislative Assembly. The administrator of the territory is designated as the:

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860, came into force with effect from:

By the Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act, which received assent in January 2020, the reserved representation of which community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was discontinued?

Who is the incumbent President of India in 2026?

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem', a cardinal principle of natural justice, means:

In jurisprudence, the maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' conveys that:

According to Salmond's analytical school of jurisprudence, law is best understood as:

The doctrine 'res ipsa loquitur', frequently invoked in the law of negligence, means:

If in a certain code 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', then how would the word 'JUDGE' be written in the same code?

A man pointing to a photograph says, "The lady in the photograph is the only daughter of the mother of my brother's mother." How is the lady related to the man?

A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times of itself at the same rate?

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'CANDID':

Select the option that correctly fills the blank: 'The accused was acquitted because the prosecution failed to ______ its case beyond reasonable doubt.'

In the law of torts, the maxim 'volenti non fit injuria' operates as a defence and means:

Who assumed office as the Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025, succeeding Justice B.R. Gavai?

Fill in the blank with the most suitable word: 'Despite the overwhelming evidence, the defendant remained ______ in his claim of innocence.'

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: 'To throw in the towel.'

Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'CANDID'.

Select the option that correctly fills both blanks: 'The committee was ______ about the proposal; some members were enthusiastic while others remained openly ______.'

Choose the correct one-word substitution for: 'A government run by officials who are appointed rather than elected.'

Identify the correctly punctuated sentence.

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the idiom: "to give someone a wide berth".

Identify the grammatically correct sentence.

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to "PROLIX".

Read the passage and answer the question that follows. "A precedent embalms a principle, but it is the duty of the court to ensure that a principle once useful does not, by the mere passage of time, harden into an obstacle to justice. Stare decisis lends certainty to the law, yet it must yield where adherence would perpetuate manifest error." The author's central point is that:

Select the option that correctly fills the blank: "Had the petitioner approached the court earlier, the injunction ______ granted."

Choose the word that is closest in meaning to "EXONERATE".

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: "One of the witnesses (a)/ who were summoned (b)/ have failed to appear (c)/ before the court. (d)"

Choose the correct meaning of the foreign expression "prima facie" as used in English.

Select the option that best replaces the underlined phrase to make the sentence grammatically correct: "The committee have submitted ITS report yesterday."

Choose the option that correctly converts the following to indirect speech: "The Magistrate said to the accused, 'Why did you abscond?'"

Choose the word that means "a person who is between 70 and 79 years of age".

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: "The lawyer's argument was so ______ that the judge could find no flaw in its reasoning."

Identify the sentence in which the word "bar" is used in the sense of the legal profession.

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers ____ satisfied with the adjournment granted by the court.'

Select the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXONERATE'.

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'The accused, along with his accomplices, (a)/ were produced (b)/ before the Magistrate (c)/ in the afternoon. (d)'

Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: 'to throw the book at someone'.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition: 'The petitioner was wholly oblivious ____ the consequences of filing a false affidavit.'

Choose the option that best expresses the sentence in indirect (reported) speech: He said, 'I will deliver the judgment tomorrow.'

Select the word that is spelt CORRECTLY.

Choose the option that correctly converts the sentence into the passive voice: 'The court has dismissed the appeal.'

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the general power of the High Court or District Court to transfer, on the application of a party or of its own motion, any suit, appeal or other proceeding at any stage, is contained in:

Under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a plaint shall be rejected, among other grounds, where:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the power of a court to add, strike out or substitute parties so that all questions involved in the suit may be effectually and completely adjudicated upon, is contained in:

Under Section 100A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (as substituted by the 2002 Amendment), where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order has been decided by a Single Judge of a High Court:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the amendment of pleadings at any stage of the proceedings, in such manner and on such terms as may be just, is governed by:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the revisional jurisdiction of the High Court, exercisable where a subordinate court appears to have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted with material irregularity in the exercise of its jurisdiction, is found in:

Under Order IX Rule 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an ex parte decree passed against a defendant may be set aside where the defendant satisfies the court that:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit for compensation for a wrong done to the person or to movable property, where the wrong was done within the local limits of one court's jurisdiction and the defendant resides within the limits of another, may be instituted in either court. This rule is contained in:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where it appears to the court that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, the court may formulate the terms and refer the dispute to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement or mediation. This power is conferred by:

Under Order XXII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where one of two or more plaintiffs or defendants dies and the right to sue does not survive to or against the surviving party alone, and no application for substitution of the legal representative is made within the prescribed time, the suit:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the principle of res sub judice, which bars the trial of a suit in which the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, is contained in:

For res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to operate, the former suit must have been heard and finally decided by a court which was:

A suit for the recovery of immovable property situate within the local limits of the jurisdiction of a particular court must ordinarily be instituted in that court. This rule is laid down in:

Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, every suit shall be instituted in the court of the:

An appeal from every original decree passed by a court exercising original jurisdiction, to the court authorised to hear appeals from its decisions, is provided under:

A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies only:

The power of a civil court to grant restitution so as to place the parties in the position which they would have occupied but for a decree subsequently varied or reversed is contained in:

The inherent power of a civil court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court is preserved by:

Under the proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the maximum period (from the date of service of summons) within which the court may permit a defendant to file the written statement is:

Under the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an application for amendment of pleadings shall not be allowed after the commencement of trial unless the court concludes that:

A plaint shall be rejected under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 where:

Before instituting a suit against the Government, a notice under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 must ordinarily be served, and the suit cannot be instituted until the expiry of:

Where a plaintiff, having instituted a suit, withdraws from it without the permission of the court to bring a fresh suit, the consequence under Order XXIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is that:

A caveat lodged under Section 148A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, if no application is filed in the meantime, shall remain in force for a period of:

Where a decree is for the delivery of immovable property, Order XXI Rule 35 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that possession shall be delivered to the decree-holder, if necessary, by:

Under the BNSS, for an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more, the officer in charge of the police station is required (from a date to be notified by the State Government within five years) to cause a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and videograph the process. This obligation is contained in:

Under the BNSS, the entire process of conducting a search of a place or the seizure of property, including the preparation of the list and signing by witnesses, is required to be recorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably on a mobile phone. This mandate is found in:

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, for an offence punishable with imprisonment of ten years or more, police custody (which may be sought in parts) must be sought within the first:

Under the BNSS, the BNSS introduces a wholly new provision empowering a Court to conduct a trial in absentia and pronounce judgment against a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial. This provision is:

Under the BNSS, a first-time offender, who has never been convicted of any offence, is entitled to be released on bond once he has undergone detention as an undertrial for a period extending up to:

The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 stands repealed and replaced by the BNSS with effect from 1st July 2024. The repeal and savings provision of the BNSS is contained in:

Under the BNSS, the sentence of imprisonment which a Court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class is empowered to pass has been enhanced. Such a Magistrate may now pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding:

Under the BNSS, a mercy petition by a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir or relative) is to be filed before the President or the Governor within a period of thirty days from receipt of intimation from the jail Superintendent. This procedure is governed by:

Under the BNSS, a summons (including one bearing the image of the court's seal) may be served by electronic communication, and every such summons so served is deemed to be duly served. The provision dealing with how summons are served is:

Under the BNSS, every State Government is, for the first time, statutorily mandated to prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme. This obligation is contained in:

Under the BNSS, upon completion of investigation, the obligation of the police officer to forward to the Magistrate the copies of the police report and other documents so that they may be supplied to the accused (and the victim) free of cost is dealt with under:

Under Section 35 of the BNSS, no arrest of a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age, for an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, shall be made without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision empowering a police officer to require, by written notice, the appearance of a person against whom a reasonable complaint or credible information exists (the successor to the Section 41A CrPC notice) is now found in:

Where a person is accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of ten years (not death or life imprisonment), the maximum period for which a Magistrate may authorise detention pending investigation under Section 187 BNSS, beyond which the accused becomes entitled to default bail, is:

Section 173 BNSS, dealing with information relating to a cognizable offence, introduces a category of offences (punishable with three years or more but less than seven years) where the officer-in-charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry. The maximum period prescribed for completing such preliminary enquiry is:

A novel form of punishment introduced for the first time in Indian criminal law and defined in the Explanation to Section 23 BNSS as work that a convict may be ordered to perform for the benefit of the community, for which he is entitled to no remuneration, is:

The provision in the BNSS, 2023 enabling the inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial, with no parallel in the CrPC, is:

Under Section 175(3) BNSS a Magistrate empowered under Section 210 may order an investigation. A key new safeguard inserted in this provision, absent from Section 156(3) CrPC, requires the Magistrate before ordering such investigation to:

Section 223 BNSS, which corresponds to Section 200 CrPC (examination of complainant on a complaint), introduces a significant departure from the earlier law by mandating that before taking cognizance of an offence on a complaint, the Magistrate shall:

Section 105 BNSS introduces a mandatory technological safeguard during search and seizure operations. It requires that:

Under Section 479 BNSS, a first-time offender (not accused of an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment, and against whom proceedings in only one case are pending) is entitled to be released on bail by the Court once he has undergone detention up to:

The power to grant anticipatory bail, i.e., a direction for release on bail in the event of arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence, is conferred on the High Court and Court of Session under which provision of the BNSS?

Section 530 BNSS, a provision with no equivalent in the CrPC, makes a general enabling declaration that:

Under Section 23 BNSS, the maximum sentence of imprisonment that a Court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass is:

Under Section 135 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, kidnapping from lawful guardianship is committed where a person is taken out of the keeping of the lawful guardian. The Sanhita fixes a uniform age threshold for both boys and girls of below:

Under Section 103 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where culpable homicide not amounting to murder is committed with the intention of causing death (the first part), the offender may be punished with:

Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with abetment of suicide of a child or person with mental illness. Apart from such persons, it expressly extends to abetment of suicide of:

Under the proviso to Section 61(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an agreement (other than an agreement to commit an offence) amounts to criminal conspiracy only if:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of criminal breach of trust and the offence of cheating are dealt with, respectively, in:

Under Section 22 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general exception relating to mental incapacity now uses the expression:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of defamation is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for murder is contained in:

Which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, corresponds to the offence of dowry death (formerly Section 304B IPC)?

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, has introduced a distinct offence of 'snatching', not separately defined under the old IPC. It is punishable under:

'A', intending to kill 'B', fires a shot aimed at 'B'; the shot misses 'B' and instead kills 'C', a bystander whom 'A' did not know. 'A' is most appropriately held liable for the murder of 'C' on the principle of:

Criminal conspiracy under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is defined in:

Match List-I (offence) with List-II (BNS, 2023 section) and select the correct answer: List-I: (a) Theft (b) Robbery (c) Dacoity (d) Cheating List-II: 1. Section 318 2. Section 303 3. Section 310 4. Section 309

Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India (the provision that broadly replaces the old offence of sedition) appear in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, under:

Defamation is defined and made punishable under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'grievous hurt' is defined in:

'X' and 'Y' set out together to murder 'Z'. 'X' stands guard at the door, weapon in hand, to ensure no one interferes, while 'Y' alone stabs and kills 'Z'. Which is correct?

The offence of 'organised crime', newly codified in the general penal law, is contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, under:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, kidnapping is defined in:

Part IX of the Constitution of India, dealing with the Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243-O), was inserted by:

Under Article 243-K of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to the Panchayats is vested in:

The doctrine of "basic structure" of the Constitution was first propounded by the Supreme Court of India in:

Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended even during a Proclamation of Emergency, following the 44th Amendment, 1978?

An amendment to the Constitution under Article 368 that seeks to alter the provisions relating to the election of the President, or the extent of the executive power of the Union and the States, requires:

Article 13 of the Constitution of India primarily deals with:

Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form forbidden under which Article of the Constitution of India?

The power of the High Court to issue writs to any person or authority for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights as well as "for any other purpose" is conferred by:

Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State are made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the:

A person not already in the service of the Union or of the State is eligible to be appointed a district judge under Article 233(2) only if he has been an advocate or pleader for not less than:

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, containing the anti-defection provisions, was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

Under the Tenth Schedule, the question whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification on the ground of defection is decided by the:

Articles 330A and 332A, providing for reservation of seats for women in the House of the People and in the State Legislative Assemblies, were inserted by the:

Clauses (6) of Article 15 and Article 16, enabling the State to make special provision, including reservation up to ten per cent, for the economically weaker sections of citizens, were inserted by the:

For the purposes of Part IXA of the Constitution, a "Metropolitan area" under Article 243P means an area having a population of:

Part IXA of the Constitution, relating to the Municipalities, was added by which Constitutional Amendment Act?

The control over subordinate courts, including the posting, promotion and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service of a State and holding posts inferior to the post of district judge, is vested by the Constitution in the:

Which of the following Directive Principles directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?

Section 24 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 permits the Court to consider a confession made by one of several persons jointly tried for the same offence against a co-accused. Under Explanation II to this section, a trial of more persons than one held in the absence of an accused who has absconded or failed to comply with a proclamation shall be "deemed to be a joint trial". The proclamation referred to is one issued under which provision?

Regarding the certificate accompanying electronic records under Section 63(4) BSA and expert opinion on electronic evidence under Section 39 BSA, which of the following statements is correct in light of the Supreme Court's clarification?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a confession made by a person while in the custody of a police officer is, as a general rule, not provable against him. By virtue of which provision and to what extent can the part of such information that distinctly relates to a fact thereby discovered nonetheless be proved?

A statement made by a person as to the cause of his death, or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death, where the cause of that person's death comes into question, is a relevant fact under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. Such a statement is relevant under:

When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, or of science or art, or any other field, or as to the identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant facts. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this is provided in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the provision dealing with the admissibility of electronic records, which permits an electronic record to be admitted without further proof or production of the original on production of the prescribed certificate, is:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact. This rule is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the examination of a witness by the party who calls him is called examination-in-chief, and his examination by the adverse party is called cross-examination. The provision defining the order and these terms is:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a leading question, if objected to by the adverse party, must not be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination except with the permission of the Court, but may be freely asked in cross-examination. Which provision governs leading questions?

The fact that a person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is conclusive proof of legitimacy, unless non-access is shown. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this rule is found in:

Where the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman, and it is shown that soon before her death she had been subjected by such person to cruelty or harassment for, or in connection with, any demand for dowry, the Court shall presume that such person caused the dowry death. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this mandatory presumption is in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the position regarding corroboration of his testimony?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when a person is accused of an offence and pleads a general exception, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within that exception lies upon him, and the Court presumes the absence of such circumstances. This provision is:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, all persons are competent to testify unless the Court considers that they are prevented from understanding the questions put to them, or from giving rational answers, by tender years, extreme old age, disease, or any other cause of the same kind. The provision determining who may testify is:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Court is required to take judicial notice of, among other things, all laws in force in the territory of India and international treaties or conventions entered into by India. Such facts of which the Court shall take judicial notice are enumerated in:

After the 2019 Amendment, the twelve-month period within which an arbitral award (in matters other than international commercial arbitration) must be made under Section 29A(1) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 runs from:

Where a court passes an interim measure under Section 9(1) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 before the commencement of arbitral proceedings, Section 9(2) requires that the arbitral proceedings be commenced:

Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties fail to determine the number of arbitrators, the arbitral tribunal shall consist of:

An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 must ordinarily be made within three months of receipt of the award. The proviso empowers the Court, on sufficient cause, to entertain the application within a further period of:

Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, arbitral proceedings in respect of a particular dispute commence on the date on which:

A plea that the arbitral tribunal does not have jurisdiction shall be raised:

A party intending to challenge an arbitrator must send a written statement of the reasons for the challenge to the arbitral tribunal within:

The ground of 'patent illegality appearing on the face of the award' for setting aside an arbitral award under the Act:

After an arbitral award is made under Section 31, the time for challenging it begins to run only when:

Under Section 29A, an award in a matter other than international commercial arbitration shall be made within twelve months from:

Where the parties to an arbitration agreement opt for the fast track procedure under Section 29B, the award shall be made within:

Under the exception to Section 27, one who sells the goodwill of a business may agree with the buyer to refrain from carrying on a similar business within specified local limits, provided:

An agreement made without consideration is void; however, under Section 25 it is valid where it is a promise made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in near relation, if such agreement is:

A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called under Section 124:

Under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the person in respect of whose default the guarantee is given is called the:

A contract to do an act which afterwards becomes impossible, or by reason of some event which the promisor could not prevent becomes unlawful, becomes void under Section 56:

When an agreement is discovered to be void, or when a contract becomes void, any person who has received any advantage under it is bound, under Section 65, to:

Compensation for any loss or damage caused to a party by the breach of a contract, under Section 73, may be recovered where such loss or damage:

Bankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys of a High Court and policy-brokers may, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, retain as security for a general balance of account any goods bailed to them. This general lien is conferred by:

An agreement which restricts a party absolutely from enforcing his rights under a contract through the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may enforce his rights, is, under Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

The power conferred by Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 to condone delay on showing sufficient cause is available in respect of:

Under the Explanation to Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the fact that an appellant or applicant was misled by any order, practice or judgment of the High Court in computing the prescribed period:

Under Section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the rule that once time has begun to run no subsequent disability or inability stops it is subject to which qualification?

Sections 6 and 7 of the Limitation Act, 1963 (legal disability) are, by virtue of Section 8, subject to the limitation that the period after cessation of disability cannot in any case extend beyond:

Under Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in computing the period of limitation for an appeal, an application for leave to appeal or for revision or review of a judgment, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced is:

Under Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the time during which a plaintiff has been prosecuting another civil proceeding is excluded only if that earlier proceeding was prosecuted:

Under Section 15 of the Limitation Act, 1963, in computing the period of limitation for a suit, the period during which the institution of the suit was stayed by an injunction or order shall be:

Where a suit is based on the fraud of the defendant, Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that the period of limitation shall not begin to run until:

A declaratory decree under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, will not be made in favour of a plaintiff who, being able to seek further relief than a mere declaration of title, omits to do so. This rule is contained in:

Under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person entitled to any legal character or to any right as to any property may institute a suit for a declaration that he is so entitled, against:

A perpetual injunction under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, may be granted to the plaintiff to prevent the breach of an obligation existing in his favour. Where the obligation arises from contract, the court is guided by:

Under Section 41(h) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, an injunction cannot be granted:

Under Section 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, the period for completion of pre-institution mediation is:

Section 8 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides that no civil revision application or petition shall be entertained against an interlocutory order of a Commercial Court. Such a challenge, subject to Section 13, may be raised:

The bar in Section 8 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 against entertaining a civil revision applies to an interlocutory order of a Commercial Court:

A minor admitted to the benefits of partnership who wishes to elect not to become a partner on attaining majority must give public notice within:

Where a partner is adjudicated an insolvent, he ceases to be a partner:

In settling the accounts of a firm after dissolution under Section 48, losses including deficiencies of capital are to be paid:

An accused, with sexual intent, touches the vagina of a child without penetration. Under the POCSO Act this constitutes:

The punishment for sexual assault under Section 8 of the POCSO Act is imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than:

Under Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a sale of tangible immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards can be made: