Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 4 — Questions & Solutions

Which team won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025, defeating New Zealand in the final at Dubai?

The Nobel Peace Prize for 2025 was awarded to Maria Corina Machado, an opposition leader of which country?

Justice M. Fathima Beevi holds the distinction of being the first woman to be appointed as a judge of which institution in India?

In jurisprudence, the theory that law is the 'command of the sovereign backed by sanction' is most closely associated with which jurist?

The maxim 'res ipsa loquitur', frequently invoked in the law of torts (negligence), literally means:

Under the Constitution of India, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed by the President under which Article?

Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'PERFIDIOUS':

A person who is appointed to investigate and address complaints of maladministration, especially of public authorities, is called:

If in a certain code 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', then how would 'JUDGE' be written in the same code?

A father is presently three times as old as his son. After 12 years, the father will be twice as old as his son. What is the son's present age?

The Konark Sun Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site shaped like a colossal chariot, is located in which State?

Choose the correctly punctuated and grammatically correct sentence:

Justice Surya Kant assumed office in November 2025 as the Chief Justice of India. He is the:

Who was sworn in as the 15th Vice-President of India in September 2025?

Who continues to hold the office of Attorney General for India after a re-appointment effective from 1 October 2025?

The Booker Prize 2025 for fiction was awarded to the novel 'Flesh', written by:

In jurisprudence, the maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' means that:

The maxim 'res ipsa loquitur', frequently invoked in the law of torts, means:

According to Salmond, the chief end or purpose of law and of the State is the administration of justice, which he classified primarily into:

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXCULPATE':

In a certain code, if FACT is written as GBDU, then how is WORD written in the same code?

A sum of money becomes Rs. 12,000 in 2 years and Rs. 13,500 in 3 years at simple interest. What is the principal?

Select the option that correctly completes the sentence: 'No sooner ____ the bell rung than the students rushed out of the classroom.'

Find the missing number in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860, came into force on:

Who took oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025?

The legal maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' means:

The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, popularly called the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, provides reservation for women to the extent of:

India became the first country in the world to soft-land a spacecraft near the south pole of the Moon when, on 23 August 2023, the Vikram lander of which mission touched down?

Choose the word that is the correct SYNONYM of 'CANDID'.

Fill in the blank with the correct word: 'The two statements were so contradictory that it was impossible to ____ them.'

Choose the option that correctly completes the conditional sentence: 'If the notice ____ served in time, the suit would not have been dismissed.'

Read the passage and answer: 'A precedent is binding only in so far as it lays down a principle of law; the actual decision binds the parties, but the ratio decidendi binds future courts. Observations not necessary for the decision are merely obiter dicta and carry persuasive value alone.' According to the passage, what binds future courts?

Choose the word that means 'a person appointed to settle a dispute between parties by their mutual consent'.

Select the correct one-word substitute for 'a statement that is taken to be true without proof, as the basis for reasoning'.

Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'PERFUNCTORY':

Select the word most OPPOSITE in meaning to 'GARRULOUS':

One who is unable to pay his debts is called a/an:

From the following words, identify the one that is MIS-SPELT:

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the idiom 'to turn a deaf ear':

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The witness gave a/an ______ account of the incident, leaving no detail unexplained.

Identify the part of the sentence containing an error: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers (a)/ were present (b)/ when the accused was produced (c)/ before the court. (d)'

Select the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'CANDID':

One who has a deep and irrational fear of enclosed spaces is suffering from:

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of 'sine qua non':

Fill in the blanks with the most suitable pair: She was acquitted ______ the charge ______ want of evidence.

Choose the word most OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXONERATE':

Select the correct one-word substitute for 'a statement that is taken to be true without proof, as a basis for reasoning':

Choose the sentence in which the underlined idiom 'to read between the lines' is used correctly:

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in capitals: ABATE

Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in capitals: PERFIDIOUS

Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who knows many foreign languages'.

Pick out the most effective word to fill the blank and make the sentence meaningfully complete: 'The judge directed the parties to ______ from making any defamatory statements during the pendency of the suit.'

From the following words, identify the one that is MISSPELT.

Choose the option that correctly identifies the meaning of the idiom: 'to throw in the towel'.

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was acquitted ______ the charge of murder for want of evidence.'

Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the civil courts have jurisdiction to try:

The doctrine of res sub judice, which bars a court from proceeding with the trial of a suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, is embodied in:

A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies:

No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the court with the consent of parties. This bar is contained in:

Before instituting a suit against the Government or against a public officer in respect of an act purporting to be done in his official capacity, Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 requires that:

Which of the following is NOT a ground for rejection of a plaint under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed may apply to have it set aside under Order IX Rule 13 CPC if he satisfies the court that:

A summary suit under Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 can be instituted upon:

Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, as construed by the Supreme Court in Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd., (2010) 8 SCC 24, provides for settlement of disputes outside the court through:

A suit for the recovery of immovable property, with or without rent or profits, is to be instituted, under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:

Under the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, an application for amendment of pleadings after the trial has commenced:

Where the plaintiff withdraws from a suit or abandons part of his claim without the leave of the court under Order XXIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the consequence is that he:

Where one of two or more defendants dies and the right to sue does not survive against the surviving defendants alone, and no application to bring the legal representative of the deceased on record is made within the time limited by law, the effect under Order XXII Rule 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is that:

Following the Delhi High Court (Amendment) Act, 2015, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the District Courts of Delhi (for ordinary civil suits) was enhanced to suits where the value does not exceed:

Under Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a foreign judgment shall be conclusive between the same parties EXCEPT, inter alia, where:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the bar contained in Section 10 (res sub judice) operates to:

The doctrine of res judicata, which precludes re-trial of a matter already finally decided between the same parties, is embodied in:

A civil court has jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those of which their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred. This rule is contained in:

No suit shall be instituted against the Government (or a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done in his official capacity) until the expiration of how long after notice in writing has been delivered?

Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure empowers a court, where it appears that there exist elements of a settlement, to refer the dispute for arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (including Lok Adalat) or mediation?

Under Order VIII Rule 1 CPC, the maximum period (by way of the proviso) within which a defendant may be permitted to file his written statement from the date of service of summons in an ordinary civil suit is:

Under Order VII Rule 11 CPC, a plaint shall be rejected where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be:

A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed may apply for setting it aside on the ground that summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing. Such an application lies under:

An appeal from an original decree (first appeal) is provided for under which section of the Code of Civil Procedure?

A second appeal under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall lie to the High Court only if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves:

Section 184 BNSS provides for the medical examination of a victim of rape. It requires that the registered medical practitioner forward the examination report, without delay, to the investigating officer who in turn forwards it to the Magistrate, within a period of:

Section 398 BNSS casts a statutory obligation, for the first time in the Code, on every State Government to:

Under Section 472 BNSS, a convict under sentence of death, or his legal heir or relative, may file a mercy petition before the President under Article 72 or the Governor under Article 161. The petition must be filed within a period of:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the period of twenty-four hours within which a person arrested without warrant must be produced before the nearest Magistrate (excluding the time of journey) is provided in:

Under Section 43(4) of the BNSS, 2023, in exceptional circumstances a woman may be arrested after sunset and before sunrise only where:

A police officer arresting a person without a warrant for a cognizable offence is required, under the BNSS, to forthwith communicate the full particulars of the offence and grounds for arrest. This obligation is contained in:

Under Section 187(3) of the BNSS, 2023, the maximum period of detention after which an accused becomes entitled to default bail, where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of ten years or more, is:

Information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence may now be given by electronic communication and the registration of a 'Zero FIR' irrespective of jurisdiction is recognised under the BNSS in:

Under Section 176(3) of the BNSS, 2023, the visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime to collect forensic evidence is mandatory in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of:

Trial, inquiry or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial, where there is no immediate prospect of arresting him, is now expressly provided for under:

The provision in the BNSS, 2023 empowering and obliging the court to question the accused generally on the case after the prosecution evidence is closed (formerly Section 313 CrPC) is:

Under the BNSS, 2023, an application for plea bargaining is not maintainable where the offence is punishable with:

Under the BNSS, 2023 a Magistrate taking cognizance of an offence upon a complaint is required, by the proviso to Section 223(1), to:

Direction for grant of anticipatory bail to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence is provided in the BNSS, 2023 under:

The definition of 'victim' under Section 2(1)(y) of the BNSS, 2023 expressly includes:

Under Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023, a police officer is not required to arrest a person accused of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment up to seven years; instead, in the first instance the officer may:

A petition for mercy by a convict under sentence of death, and the procedure for its submission to the President or the Governor, is, for the first time, provided in a statutory form in the BNSS, 2023 under:

Under Section 173(3) of the BNSS, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of three years or more but less than seven years, the officer-in-charge may, with the prior permission of a superior officer, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain a prima facie case within:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the maximum total period of detention of an accused otherwise than in the custody of the police, where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of ten years or more, is:

Which provision of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 deals with the grant of anticipatory bail, i.e. a direction for release of a person apprehending arrest on an accusation of a non-bailable offence?

Under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where information relates to a cognizable offence punishable for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists, which is to be completed within:

The concept of a 'Zero FIR', allowing registration of a first information report at any police station irrespective of territorial jurisdiction, has for the first time been given statutory recognition under which section of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023?

Under Section 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a person is accused of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years and such person is infirm or above sixty years of age, the arrest may be made only with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

Section 144 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, empowering an order for maintenance of wives, children and parents who are unable to maintain themselves, corresponds to which provision of the repealed Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

The general punishment for the offence of rape (formerly Section 376 IPC) is now provided under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in:

Abetment of a thing is defined in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in:

The general provision declaring that nothing done in the exercise of the right of private defence is an offence ('Things done in private defence') is found in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, in:

Under Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a murder is committed by a group acting in concert on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, the minimum number of persons in the group for the provision to apply is:

Which of the following is a newly created offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 that had no distinct corresponding section in the Indian Penal Code, 1860, defined as theft committed by suddenly, quickly or forcibly seizing movable property?

Section 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with sexual intercourse obtained by deceitful means or on a false promise to marry. The maximum punishment prescribed under this section is imprisonment which may extend to:

The rule that 'when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each is liable as if the act were done by him alone' is contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

'Organised crime', a substantive offence with no equivalent in the Indian Penal Code, 1860, has been introduced under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of criminal conspiracy is defined and punished under:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, robbery committed conjointly by five or more persons amounts to dacoity. The relevant defining section is:

On the same set of allegations, the offences of cheating (Section 318 BNS) and criminal breach of trust (Section 316 BNS) generally cannot co-exist because:

Under Section 109 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (attempt to murder), where the act causes hurt to the victim, the offender is liable to be punished with:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the definition of 'culpable homicide' and the definition of 'murder' are respectively contained in:

Under Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a group of five or more persons acting in concert commits murder on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief, each member of the group shall be punished with:

Where a person voluntarily causes grievous hurt and in the course of its commission causes the victim to be in a permanent disability or persistent vegetative state, the punishment prescribed under Section 117(3) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general punishment for the offence of murder is provided by:

Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduces a specific provision for which of the following situations?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'dowry death' is dealt with under:

Which of the following is NOT one of the punishments to which offenders are liable under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

The right to constitutional remedies under Article 32 of the Constitution may be suspended by Presidential order during the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency declared on the ground of:

Article 233A of the Constitution, validating appointments of, and judgments etc. delivered by, certain district judges, was inserted primarily to overcome the effect of the decision in:

Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases, including in all cases of sentence of death?

The power of superintendence of a High Court over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction is conferred by:

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts under Article 226 and in the Supreme Court under Article 32 is itself part of the basic structure of the Constitution, while dealing with the validity of the 42nd Amendment's exclusion clauses?

A law made by Parliament under Article 169 providing for the abolition or creation of a Legislative Council in a State, pursuant to a resolution of the State Legislative Assembly:

Following the decision in Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, the protection conferred by Article 31C against challenge under Articles 14 and 19 is available to a law made to give effect to the directive principles specified in:

With respect to a reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143(1) on a question of law of public importance, the opinion rendered by the Court is:

Where a Money Bill is presented to the Governor of a State for assent under Article 200, the Governor may:

The right to property, after the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 omitted Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, presently finds place as:

In Selvi v. State of Karnataka, the Supreme Court held that the involuntary administration of narcoanalysis, polygraph and brain-mapping (BEAP) tests on an accused is unconstitutional principally as a violation of:

Under the second proviso to Article 31A(1), where the State acquires land held by a person under his personal cultivation within the ceiling limit applicable to him, the acquiring law is saved by Article 31A only if it provides for compensation at a rate which:

A resolution for the impeachment of the President of India, on the ground of violation of the Constitution, must be passed by each House of Parliament by a majority of:

Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate on a matter in the State List in the national interest if the Council of States so resolves. Such a resolution remains in force for a period not exceeding:

Which one of the following clemency powers is exclusively vested in the President and is NOT available to the Governor of a State?

A law for the creation or abolition of a Legislative Council in a State can be enacted by Parliament only if the Legislative Assembly of the State first passes a resolution by:

Laws and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution are protected from being declared void on the ground of inconsistency with the Fundamental Rights by virtue of:

After the Forty-fourth Amendment, the right to property is no longer a fundamental right but is recognised as a constitutional/legal right which provides that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. This is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following correctly states the provisions dealing with primary evidence and secondary evidence respectively?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the general rule that whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts must prove that those facts exist, is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the opinion of a person specially skilled in foreign law, science, art or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions is a relevant fact under:

Which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 declares that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence?

An accused in police custody states, 'I will produce the knife with which I stabbed the deceased; it is buried under the cowshed,' and the knife is recovered from that spot. Under the BSA, 2023, how much of this information is admissible?

A statement made by a person, since deceased, as to the cause of his death or as to the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death (commonly called a dying declaration) is made relevant under the BSA, 2023 by:

Under the BSA, 2023, a confession caused by an inducement, threat, coercion or promise proceeding from a person in authority is irrelevant in a criminal proceeding by virtue of:

In a prosecution under the BSA, 2023, where it is shown that soon before her death a woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment for or in connection with a demand for dowry, the Court shall presume that the accused caused the dowry death. This presumption is contained in:

Under the BSA, 2023, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon:

The general rule under the BSA, 2023 that an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused, and that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice, is reflected in:

Under the BSA, 2023, no particular number of witnesses is required for the proof of any fact. This rule is found in:

Under the BSA, 2023, a leading question may, without the permission of the Court, be asked in:

Under the BSA, 2023, the provision empowering the Judge, in order to discover or obtain proper proof of relevant facts, to ask any question he pleases of any witness or party and to order production of any document or thing, is:

Under the BSA, 2023, in criminal proceedings the fact that the accused person has a previous good character is:

Under the BSA, 2023, the contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence. Primary evidence is dealt with under:

On an application under Section 8, a judicial authority before which an action is brought in a matter that is the subject of an arbitration agreement shall:

Under Part III of the Act, a settlement agreement drawn up and signed in conciliation proceedings (Section 73 read with Section 74) has:

Which of the following correctly states the position under Section 80 regarding the role of a conciliator?

During pending conciliation proceedings, the parties:

In any arbitral or judicial proceeding, the parties shall not rely on or introduce as evidence which of the following arising out of conciliation?

A challenge to an arbitrator under Section 12(3) may be made on the ground that:

Under Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement:

As to the number of arbitrators, Section 10 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 provides that the parties are free to determine the number, but such number:

A plea that the arbitral tribunal does not have jurisdiction, under Section 16 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, shall be raised:

Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, under Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 the arbitral proceedings in respect of a particular dispute commence on the date on which:

In an arbitration other than an international commercial arbitration, Section 28 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 requires the arbitral tribunal to decide the dispute in accordance with:

Agreements by way of wager are, under Section 30 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

Where the parties to a contract agree to substitute a new contract for it, or to rescind or alter it, the original contract, under Section 62:

Under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind, and is not:

Under Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a 'contract' is correctly described as:

An agreement made by a minor under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, as settled in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, is:

A written and registered promise made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other is enforceable, though without consideration, by virtue of:

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or of any other person, is a contract of:

Under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the liability of the surety is:

Under Section 141 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, where the creditor, without the consent of the surety, parts with a security he holds against the principal debtor, the surety is:

To furnish a fresh period of limitation under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, an acknowledgment of liability must be:

Under Section 19 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where part-payment of a debt is made before the expiration of the prescribed period, a fresh period of limitation is computed from the time the payment is made, provided that:

Under Section 21 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where after the institution of a suit a new plaintiff or defendant is added, the suit shall, as regards him, ordinarily be deemed to have been instituted:

An easement of light and air can be acquired by prescription under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963 by peaceable enjoyment as of right and without interruption for a continuous period of:

Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is significant because, unlike the rest of the Act which merely bars the remedy, it provides that on the expiry of the limitation period for a suit for possession of property:

Under Article 136 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for the execution of any decree (other than a decree granting a mandatory injunction) or order of a civil court is:

Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit instituted after the prescribed period of limitation shall be:

Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which permits condonation of delay on sufficient cause, is available to:

Clause (ha) of Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, inserted by the 2018 amendment, bars the grant of an injunction:

Under Section 16(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended in 2018), specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person:

Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, provides that a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it:

Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person dispossessed of immovable property without his consent otherwise than in due course of law must bring the suit for recovery of possession within:

Under Section 13 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, an appeal from a judgment or order of a Commercial Court (at the level of a District Judge) or a Commercial Division of a High Court lies to the Commercial Appellate Division within a period of:

The proviso to Section 13 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 restricts appeals against orders to those orders specifically enumerated under:

Under Section 10 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, where the subject-matter of an arbitration is a commercial dispute arising out of an international commercial arbitration filed in a High Court, the application or appeal shall be heard and disposed of by:

The effect of non-registration of a firm under Section 69 is that a partner of an unregistered firm cannot:

Subject to the provisions of the Act, the relation of a partner to the firm is essentially that of:

Under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, a limited liability partnership is:

The punishment for aggravated sexual assault under Section 10 of the POCSO Act is imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than:

A person repeatedly makes a sexual gesture and shows pornographic content to a child with sexual intent, but makes no physical contact. The appropriate offence under the POCSO Act is:

The doctrine of part performance, which bars a transferor (and persons claiming under him) from enforcing any right in respect of the property against a transferee who has taken possession in part performance of a written contract, is contained in: