Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 10 — Questions & Solutions

Find the next term in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ?

The doctrine 'ubi jus ibi remedium' expresses the proposition that:

Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "She is the only daughter of my mother's mother." How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXONERATE':

The doctrine of 'stare decisis', which underpins the system of binding precedent, literally means:

In the law of contract and property, the maxim 'nemo dat quod non habet' means that:

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem' means:

According to Salmond, jurisprudence is the science of which of the following?

Who has been the Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court since January 2025?

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to:

At the G20 Summit hosted by India in New Delhi in September 2023, which entity was admitted as a permanent member of the G20?

The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' embodies which principle of criminal liability?

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 replaced which earlier enactment?

In a certain code, GARDEN is written as HBSEFO. How would FOREST be written in the same code?

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'TACITURN':

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option: 'The judge was known for his _____ temperament, never allowing emotion to cloud his reasoning.'

Who, having taken oath on 24 November 2025, holds the office of the 53rd Chief Justice of India?

The High Court of Delhi was constituted with effect from 31 October 1966 by which enactment?

Which country won the ICC Champions Trophy held in 2025, defeating New Zealand in the final at Dubai?

Who won the men's singles title at the Wimbledon Championships, 2025, becoming the first Italian to do so?

The Nobel Peace Prize for the year 2025 was awarded to which person, recognised for promoting democratic rights in Venezuela?

Who currently holds the office of the President of India, having been sworn in as the 15th President in July 2022?

In jurisprudence, the maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' conveys that:

Which jurist is most closely associated with the 'pure theory of law' (Grundnorm)?

The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' means that:

A sum of money becomes double in 5 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times the original sum at the same rate?

If in a certain code 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', how would 'JUDGE' be written in the same code?

The Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been repealed and replaced by a new criminal code which came into force on 1st July 2024. That code is the -

The legal maxim 'audi alteram partem', a core principle of natural justice, means -

Read the passage and answer: 'A precedent binds a subordinate court only on the ratio decidendi, that is, the legal principle on which the decision rests. Observations not necessary to the decision are obiter dicta and carry only persuasive value.' What is the binding element of a precedent?

Select the word that means 'a person appointed to act on behalf of another in legal matters'.

Choose the correct one-word substitution for 'a statement that is open to more than one interpretation'.

Choose the option that best fills the blank: "The judge's remarks were so ______ that even the most experienced counsel struggled to grasp their import."

Select the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to "PARSIMONIOUS".

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: "The petitioner has been debarred ______ practising before the tribunal for one year."

Choose the option that correctly improves the underlined part: "Hardly had the trial begun WHEN the chief witness retracted his statement."

Choose the word nearest in meaning to "PERFUNCTORY".

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: "The committee (a)/ have submitted (b)/ its report (c)/ to the Chief Justice. (d)"

Choose the correct passive form of: "The court will deliver the judgment tomorrow."

Choose the meaning of the foreign legal expression "ipso facto" as used in standard English.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: "The advocate's argument, though eloquent, was essentially ______; it had no bearing on the issue before the bench."

Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence: "However the appeal cannot be entertained because it is time-barred."

Read the passage and answer the question. PASSAGE: "The doctrine of precedent does not mean that courts must blindly follow every earlier decision. A precedent that was reached per incuriam — that is, in ignorance of a relevant statute or binding authority — carries no compelling force, and a later bench is free to depart from it." According to the passage, when is a court free to depart from an earlier decision?

Choose the correct sentence with respect to the use of articles.

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'PRECARIOUS' as used in the sentence: 'The witness gave testimony from a precarious position.'

Select the option that correctly completes the sentence: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers ___ aware that the file had gone missing.'

Identify the meaning of the idiom 'to take the law into one's own hands'.

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was charged ___ theft and released ___ bail.'

Choose the word that is a SYNONYM of 'CANDID'.

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'One of the witnesses (a)/ who was present (b)/ have refused (c)/ to depose. (d)'

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the idiom 'a foregone conclusion'.

Choose the correct passive form of: 'The court will hear the petition tomorrow.'

Select the word that means 'a person who deliberately sets fire to property'.

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank: 'The argument was so convincing that it left little room for ___ .'

Read the passage and answer: 'A precedent is a decided case that furnishes a basis for determining later cases involving similar facts. Courts generally follow precedents to ensure consistency, but a precedent may be overruled by a higher court or distinguished on its facts.' According to the passage, a precedent may cease to bind a court when it is —

Choose the word that correctly completes the analogy: 'PLAINTIFF : DEFENDANT :: PROSECUTION : ___ '.

Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which empowers the Court to refer a dispute for settlement outside court, enumerates which of the following modes?

In Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. (P) Ltd., (2010) 8 SCC 24, the Supreme Court held with respect to clauses (c) and (d) of Section 89(2) CPC that:

Under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a plaint is NOT liable to be rejected where:

Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the CPC, the defendant shall present a written statement of his defence within thirty days from the date of service of summons, extendable by the Court, but in any case not later than:

The principle of res judicata is embodied in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in:

Which Section of the CPC embodies the rule of res sub judice, requiring a Court to stay a subsequently instituted suit where the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties?

The revisional jurisdiction of the High Court over subordinate courts under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is contained in:

Under the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the CPC, an application for amendment of pleadings shall not be allowed after the trial has commenced unless the Court concludes that:

Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 requires that no suit shall be instituted against the Government or a public officer in respect of an act done in his official capacity until the expiration of:

An application by a defendant to set aside an ex parte decree passed against him under Order IX Rule 13 of the CPC may succeed where the defendant satisfies the Court that:

Where one of several defendants dies and the right to sue survives against the surviving defendants, but no application for substitution of the legal representatives of the deceased defendant is made within the time limited by law, the consequence under Order XXII Rule 4 of the CPC is that:

A temporary injunction restraining a party during the pendency of a suit may be granted under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 under:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the jurisdiction of the civil court to try all suits of a civil nature, excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred, is conferred by:

The doctrine of res judicata, which bars a court from trying a suit or issue already finally decided between the same parties, is contained in:

A first appeal from an original decree under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 may be heard and decided:

Under Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a second appeal lies to the High Court only where the case involves:

The revisional jurisdiction of the High Court to correct a subordinate court that has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it, or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, is conferred by:

No suit shall be instituted against the Government (or a public officer in respect of an act in his official capacity) until the expiration of how much time after notice in writing under Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Power to grant a temporary injunction restraining a party from causing injury to the property in dispute, or from dispossessing the plaintiff, during the pendency of a suit is provided under:

The summary procedure for recovery of a debt or liquidated demand arising on a written contract, bill of exchange, hundi or promissory note is laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 under:

Where a plaint does not disclose a cause of action, or the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law, the plaint is liable to be rejected under:

A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed may apply for setting it aside, on showing sufficient cause for non-appearance, under:

The power of the court to add, strike out or substitute parties so that all questions in the suit may be effectually and completely adjudicated upon is contained in:

Amendment of pleadings, allowing parties to alter or amend their pleadings as may be necessary for determining the real questions in controversy, is governed by:

Restitution, that is, placing the parties in the position they would have occupied but for a decree which is subsequently varied or reversed, is provided for under:

Under Section 35(7) BNSS, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age shall not be arrested except with the prior permission of:

A new form of punishment introduced by the BNSS, defined in its Explanation to Section 23 as work which the Court may order a convict to perform as a form of punishment benefiting the community, for which the convict is not entitled to any remuneration, is:

Under Section 187 BNSS, the total period of fifteen days of detention in police custody that a Magistrate may authorise:

The provision for grant of anticipatory bail (direction for release in anticipation of arrest), corresponding to the erstwhile Section 438 CrPC, is now found in the BNSS at:

Under Section 356 BNSS, which introduces trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded to evade trial with no immediate prospect of arrest, such trial in absentia shall not commence until a period of how many days has elapsed from the date of framing of the charge?

Under Section 230 BNSS, the copies of the police report, first information report, statements and other documents forwarded with the report must be supplied to the accused and the victim free of cost within:

Under Section 258 BNSS, after the conclusion of arguments the Court must pronounce its judgment in open court within thirty days, extendable for recorded reasons up to a maximum of:

Section 64 BNSS now permits service of a summons to be effected by which additional mode not available under the corresponding CrPC provision?

Under the BNSS regime governing mercy petitions in death sentence cases (Section 472), a convict under sentence of death may file a mercy petition to the President of India within how many days from the date of receipt of the Jail Superintendent's record and the State Government's comments?

Under Section 193 BNSS, where on completion of investigation the police officer forms an opinion, the report on completion of investigation (the charge-sheet) is forwarded to:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where an investigation cannot be completed within twenty-four hours, the maximum aggregate period for which a Magistrate may authorise detention of an accused for an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of less than ten years is:

A statutory 'Zero FIR'—registration of a cognizable offence by any police station irrespective of the area where the offence was committed—has been expressly recognised for the first time under which provision of the BNSS, 2023?

Under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, 2023, a person who is above sixty years of age or is infirm cannot be arrested without warrant, in respect of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, except with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

Under the BNSS, 2023, investigation in relation to an offence of rape and certain offences against children under the POCSO Act must be completed within:

Under Section 23(1) of the BNSS, 2023, the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorised by law except:

Under Section 479 of the BNSS, 2023, a first-time offender (with no previous conviction) who is an undertrial is entitled to be released on bond by the Court on having undergone detention for a period extending up to:

The BNSS, 2023 for the first time codifies a complete procedure for inquiry, trial or judgment in the absence of an absconding accused. This 'trial in absentia' of a proclaimed offender is provided under:

Under the definition clause of the BNSS, 2023, a 'warrant-case' means a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term:

Anticipatory bail, i.e. a direction for grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence, is provided under which section of the BNSS, 2023?

Under Section 58 of the BNSS, 2023, a person arrested without warrant must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within twenty-four hours of arrest, this period being computed:

Under Section 23(2) of the BNSS, 2023, the Court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years, or of fine not exceeding:

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, 2023, for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to ten years, the fifteen-day period of police custody (which need not be at one stretch) must be availed by the police within the first:

Under Section 35(3) of the BNSS, 2023, where a person is accused of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years, instead of arresting him the police officer must:

Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023 deals with:

A, with the intention of causing the death of Z, fires a shot but the bullet strikes and kills C, a bystander whose death A did not intend. The provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 that fixes A's liability on the principle that culpable homicide may be by causing the death of a person other than the one intended is:

The offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid (acid attack), punishable with imprisonment of not less than ten years extendable to imprisonment for life, is provided in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, when five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a robbery, the offence is termed:

The offence of criminal conspiracy, requiring an agreement between two or more persons to do or cause to be done an illegal act or a legal act by illegal means, is defined under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Where a child under eighteen years of age, a person with mental illness, a delirious person or an intoxicated person commits suicide, a person who abets such suicide is liable to enhanced punishment (death or imprisonment for life) under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the substantive offence of murder is defined and the punishment for murder is prescribed, respectively, in:

The principle of joint liability for a criminal act done by several persons in furtherance of a common intention, earlier housed in Section 34 of the IPC, is now contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the rule that every member of an unlawful assembly is guilty of an offence committed in prosecution of the common object (formerly Section 149 IPC) is found in:

'A', intending to kill 'Z', shoots at 'Z' but the bullet misses and instead kills 'Y', a bystander. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, A's liability for the death of 'Y' rests on the doctrine of:

Snatching, introduced for the first time as a distinct offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is dealt with in which section, and what is its maximum term of imprisonment?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general offence of causing death by rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide (formerly Section 304A IPC) is punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:

Section 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, a newly carved-out offence, deals with:

Match List-I (offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) with List-II (section) and select the correct code: List-I: (a) Theft (b) Cheating (c) Criminal breach of trust (d) Criminal intimidation List-II: 1. Section 318 2. Section 351 3. Section 303 4. Section 316

The offence of dowry death under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (formerly Section 304B IPC), under which there is a presumption when a woman dies otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of marriage, is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing the death of the assailant in the situations enumerated in:

Which of the following is NOT an offence newly introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where a person causes the death of another by rash and negligent driving of a vehicle and escapes without reporting the incident to a police officer or Magistrate soon thereafter, the maximum punishment prescribed is:

Culpable homicide is not murder under Exception 1 to Section 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 if the offender, while deprived of the power of self-control by:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the minimum number of persons required to constitute the offence of dacoity (Section 310) is:

Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making its enforcement an offence punishable in accordance with law?

Under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment, and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases, is vested in the:

Even during the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency, the right to move any court for the enforcement of which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended under Article 359 of the Constitution of India?

The right of minorities, whether based on religion or language, to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice is guaranteed by which Article of the Constitution of India?

Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys is dealt with by which Article of the Constitution of India?

The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014, which sought to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission for appointment of judges, was struck down by the Supreme Court as violative of the basic structure of the Constitution in:

Under Article 239AA of the Constitution of India, the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi has power to make laws with respect to entries in the State List EXCEPT entries relating to:

Article 239AA, which redesignated the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and designated its administrator as the Lieutenant Governor, was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment?

The phrase 'and for any other purpose' appearing in the writ jurisdiction of the High Court, which makes that jurisdiction wider than the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, occurs in:

In which case did the Supreme Court of India, by a 13-Judge Bench, first propound the doctrine that Parliament cannot amend the 'basic structure' of the Constitution under Article 368?

Under Article 280 of the Constitution of India, the Finance Commission constituted by the President consists of:

The protection against being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once (doctrine of double jeopardy) is guaranteed by:

A Judge of a High Court holds office, under the Constitution of India, until he attains the age of:

Under Article 61 of the Constitution of India, a resolution to impeach the President must be passed in each House by a majority of:

Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, Parliament may create a new All-India Service, including an All India Judicial Service, only if the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) has declared by resolution supported by:

Under the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, in which situation is the Court bound (not merely empowered) to report its opinion to the President?

The residuary power of legislation, that is, the power to make laws with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List, is vested by the Constitution of India in:

Under Article 17 of the Constitution of India, 'untouchability' is:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the provision corresponding to the erstwhile dying declaration - the relevancy of a statement as to the cause of death made by a person who is dead - is contained in:

Which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 declares that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence?

Where a fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in police custody, so much of the information as relates distinctly to the fact discovered may be proved. This proviso is found in the BSA, 2023 in:

When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of science or art, or as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled in such matters are relevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

An accused person is being prosecuted for murder. He pleads the General Exception of unsoundness of mind under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. Under the BSA, 2023, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing his case within that exception lies on:

Under Section 109 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person:

Which of the following is the correct statement of law under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 regarding an accomplice?

Section 139 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 provides that:

A question which suggests the answer that the person putting it wishes to receive is a leading question. Under Section 146 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, leading questions:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no tenant of immovable property shall, during the continuance of the tenancy, be permitted to deny that the landlord had at the beginning of the tenancy a title to such property. This estoppel is contained in:

Under Section 128 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 relating to communications during marriage, a person may be compelled to disclose such a communication:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the rule that oral evidence must in all cases be direct - that a witness who speaks of a fact which could be seen must be one who says he saw it - is contained in:

Where the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman and it is shown that soon before her death she had been subjected by him to cruelty in connection with a dowry demand, the Court shall presume that he caused the dowry death. Under the BSA, 2023 this presumption is in:

A confession is made by an accused person but appears to the Court to have been caused by an inducement, threat, coercion or promise proceeding from a person in authority and having reference to the charge. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, such a confession is:

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Court shall presume that every electronic record purporting to be an agreement containing the electronic or digital signature of the parties was so concluded by affixing their signature. This presumption is found in:

Under Section 7(4)(c), an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in:

Under Section 25, if the respondent fails to communicate his statement of defence in accordance with Section 23 without sufficient cause, the arbitral tribunal shall:

In arbitral proceedings with more than one arbitrator, Section 29(2) provides that questions of procedure may be decided by the presiding arbitrator:

An application for setting aside an award under Section 34 must ordinarily be made within three months of receipt of the award; the proviso to Section 34(3) permits the court to entertain it within a further period of:

After the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2019, in a domestic arbitration (other than international commercial arbitration), the twelve-month period within which the arbitral tribunal must make its award under Section 29A(1) is reckoned from:

Under Section 9(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where a court passes an order granting an interim measure of protection before commencement of arbitral proceedings, the arbitral proceedings must be commenced within:

Under Section 31(7)(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the arbitral award is silent as to post-award interest, the sum directed to be paid carries interest, from the date of the award till the date of payment, at:

A plea that the arbitral tribunal does not have jurisdiction must, under Section 16(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, be raised:

Where, without showing sufficient cause, the claimant fails to communicate his statement of claim in accordance with Section 23(1), the arbitral tribunal under Section 25(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall:

An application to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34 may, under the proviso to Section 34(3), be entertained after the initial three-month period only within a further period of:

In Perkins Eastman Architects DPC v. HSCC (India) Ltd. (2019), relying on TRF Ltd. v. Energo Engineering Projects Ltd., the Supreme Court held that a person who is himself ineligible to act as arbitrator under Section 12(5) read with the Seventh Schedule:

Where a person promises to do an act which he knew, or with reasonable diligence might have known, to be impossible, and which the promisee did not know to be impossible, the third paragraph of Section 56 provides that the promisor must:

Under Section 74, where a contract is broken and a sum is named as the amount to be paid on breach, or a penalty is stipulated, the aggrieved party is entitled to receive:

A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person is, under Section 124, a contract of:

In the absence of a contract to the contrary, which of the following may retain, as security for a general balance of account, any goods bailed to them under Section 171 (general lien)?

As a general rule under Section 230, an agent who makes a contract on behalf of his principal:

An agreement made without the free consent of the parties, where consent is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation, is:

Under Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement in restraint of the marriage of a person is:

A, an agent in India, enters into a contract for the purchase of goods on behalf of B, a merchant resident abroad, without making any contract as to personal liability. As regards the agent A's personal liability under Section 230 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

A agrees to pay B Rs. 1,000 if B marries A's daughter C; unknown to both parties, C was already dead at the time of the agreement. Under Section 36 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the agreement is:

Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, an easement of light, air or way over property is acquired by prescription when peaceably and openly enjoyed as of right, without interruption, for:

Section 29(2) of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals with the situation where a special or local law prescribes a period of limitation different from that in the Schedule. In such a case:

Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, where a suit is instituted after the prescribed period of limitation but the defendant does not plead limitation as a defence, the court is required to:

Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 (condonation of delay on sufficient cause) is available in respect of:

In computing the period of limitation for an appeal under Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following is NOT excluded?

Under Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation for a suit for possession of immovable property or any interest therein based on title, and the point from which time begins to run, are respectively:

For a written acknowledgment of liability to give rise to a fresh period of limitation under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, it must be:

Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the access and use of light or air to a building can be acquired as an easement by prescription where the same has been peaceably enjoyed as of right, without interruption, for twenty years; but Section 25(2) further requires that each such period of twenty years must be a period ending:

Under Section 16(c) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person who:

After the 2018 Amendment, Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 now permits the plaintiff in a suit for specific performance to claim compensation:

Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, as substituted by the 2018 Amendment, deals with:

Under Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a perpetual injunction may be granted to the plaintiff to prevent the breach of an obligation existing in his favour; such an injunction can be granted:

Under the Commercial Courts (Pre-Institution Mediation and Settlement) Rules, 2018, the process of pre-institution mediation under Section 12A is ordinarily to be completed within:

Which of the following disputes would NOT, by itself, fall within the definition of "commercial dispute" under Section 2(1)(c) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015?

A commercial dispute of Specified Value does NOT cease to be a commercial dispute merely because it also involves an action for recovery of immovable property or realisation of monies out of immovable property given as security. This clarification appears as:

Under Section 7 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, every limited liability partnership shall have at least two designated partners who are individuals, and:

Under Section 28 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, a partner of an LLP is:

Where an act is carried out by a limited liability partnership or any of its partners with intent to defraud creditors or for any fraudulent purpose, Section 30 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 provides that the liability of the LLP and the partners who acted with such intent shall be:

Under Section 8 of the POCSO Act, 2012, the punishment for sexual assault (as defined in Section 7) is imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than -

In a prosecution under the POCSO Act, 2012 requiring a culpable mental state, Section 30 provides that the Special Court shall presume the existence of such mental state; a fact is treated as 'proved' for rebutting this presumption only when the Special Court believes it to exist -

Under Section 60 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882, a licence becomes irrevocable where: