Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 9 — Questions & Solutions

A sum of money becomes Rs. 11,000 in 2 years and Rs. 12,000 in 4 years at simple interest. What is the principal sum?

Find the number that completes the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, __?

Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India, taking oath on 24 November 2025?

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to which of the following?

Who assumed charge as the Chief Election Commissioner of India in February 2025?

Which team won the ICC Men's Champions Trophy 2025, held in Pakistan and the UAE?

On 23 August 2023, India's Chandrayaan-3 achieved a historic feat by becoming the first nation to soft-land a spacecraft near which region of the Moon?

The legal maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' conveys which of the following principles?

In jurisprudence, the proposition that law is 'the command of the sovereign backed by sanction' is most closely associated with which jurist?

The maxim 'ubi jus ibi remedium' stands for which proposition?

The Latin maxim 'audi alteram partem', a cornerstone of natural justice, requires that:

Choose the word most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'ABROGATE'.

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'FRIVOLOUS'.

In a certain code, COURT is written as DPVSU. How is JUDGE written in the same code?

A sum of money becomes Rs. 12,100 in 2 years at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually. What was the original sum?

The Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been replaced, with effect from 1 July 2024, by which of the following enactments?

Which team won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025?

The Nobel Peace Prize for 2025 was awarded to:

The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023, popularly called the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, provides for the reservation of seats for women to the extent of:

Who, as of June 2026, is the Chief Justice of the High Court of Delhi?

The 2025 Booker Prize (for fiction) was awarded to David Szalay for which novel?

Who, as of June 2026, is the Secretary-General of the United Nations?

Choose the word that is most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'PERFUNCTORY':

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EPHEMERAL':

Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025?

The principle of natural justice expressed by the maxim 'audi alteram partem' requires that:

According to the analytical school of jurisprudence associated with John Austin, law is best described as:

As of 2026, the Secretary-General of the United Nations, serving his second term, is:

A clock loses 5 minutes every hour. If it is set correctly at 12:00 noon, what time will the clock show when the actual time is 12:00 midnight the same day?

Choose the word MOST NEARLY OPPOSITE in meaning to: GREGARIOUS

Choose the meaning of the idiom: 'To beg the question'.

Select the word that correctly fills the blank: 'The witness gave a ______ account, omitting no relevant detail.'

Choose the option that correctly converts the sentence into indirect speech: She said, "I will appeal against this order tomorrow."

Choose the word that means: 'Capable of being understood in two or more possible senses, and therefore unclear.'

Choose the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in capitals: ABROGATE

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers (a)/ was aware (b)/ that the witness (c)/ had already been examined. (d)'

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'The defence counsel tried to ______ the credibility of the prosecution's key witness during cross-examination.'

Choose the word that best completes the analogy: ACQUITTAL : INNOCENCE :: CONVICTION : ______

Select the option that correctly rewrites the sentence in the passive voice: 'The court has dismissed the petition.'

Choose the meaning of the idiom: 'To turn a blind eye.'

Choose the word most similar in meaning to the word in capitals: CANDID

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was charged ______ criminal breach of trust.'

Choose the option that gives the correct one-word substitution for: 'A statement that is obviously self-contradictory yet may be true.'

Choose the correct synonym for the word in capitals: CONCISE

Fill in the blank with the correct word: 'The two parties finally reached an ______ settlement, avoiding a lengthy trial.'

Choose the option that correctly converts the direct speech to indirect speech: The judge said to the witness, 'You may step down now.'

Choose the word that is the antonym of the word in capitals: FRIVOLOUS

Choose the option that best fills the blank: 'Neither the judges nor the registrar ______ aware that the cause-list had been altered.'

Identify the word that is the antonym of 'EXONERATE'.

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the idiom 'to give the benefit of the doubt'.

Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition: 'The accused was charged ______ criminal breach of trust.'

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Each of the witnesses (a)/ were cross-examined (b)/ thoroughly by the (c)/ defence counsel. (d)'

Choose the correct synonym for 'PERFUNCTORY'.

Select the option that correctly changes the sentence to passive voice: 'The Bench delivered the judgment.'

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: 'The clause was so ______ that it admitted of two contradictory interpretations.'

Choose the option that best completes the sentence: 'Had the appellant filed the appeal in time, the limitation objection ______.'

A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed and who satisfies the court that the summons was not duly served, or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, may apply to have the decree set aside under:

Where one of two or more defendants dies and the right to sue survives against the surviving defendants alone, the court shall:

A plaintiff who, without the permission of the court, withdraws from a suit or abandons part of his claim:

A suit for the recovery of immovable property, or for the determination of any right to or interest in immovable property, shall ordinarily be instituted in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, the general power of a High Court or District Court to transfer or withdraw any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before it or any subordinate court is contained in:

Where it appears to the court that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, the court may formulate the terms and refer the dispute for arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat, or mediation. This power is conferred by:

A temporary injunction to restrain a defendant from committing a breach or causing injury to property in dispute pending the suit may be granted by the court under:

Nothing in the Code of Civil Procedure shall be deemed to limit or otherwise affect the inherent power of the court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court. This saving of inherent powers is contained in:

Under Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a 'decree' is preliminary when:

A plaint which appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law is liable to be rejected by the Court under:

An application to set aside an ex parte decree under Order IX Rule 13 CPC must, under Article 123 of the Limitation Act, 1963, ordinarily be made within:

No appeal lies from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of the parties by virtue of:

A second appeal to the High Court under Section 100 CPC lies only where the High Court is satisfied that the case involves:

Where a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, the Court which passed the decree shall, on the application of a party entitled to a benefit by way of restitution, place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for the decree. This power flows from:

No suit shall be instituted against the Government in respect of any act purporting to be done by a public officer in his official capacity until the expiration of a notice in writing, under Section 80 CPC, of:

Which of the following is NOT one of the modes of settlement of disputes outside the Court enumerated in Section 89 CPC?

A garnishee order, by which the Court attaches a debt due to the judgment-debtor from a third person and prohibits that person from paying it to the judgment-debtor, is provided under:

In a suit for partition of immovable property assessed to the payment of revenue to the Government, where the partition cannot be conveniently made without further inquiry, the Court passes a preliminary decree declaring the rights of the parties under:

An adjudication in a former suit will operate as res judicata between co-defendants only if, among other conditions:

The power of the Court to add, strike out or substitute a party to a suit at any stage of the proceedings is contained in:

The amendment of pleadings, allowing the Court to permit either party to alter or amend his pleadings at any stage of the proceedings on just terms, is provided under:

The appellate court may allow additional evidence to be produced at the stage of appeal in the circumstances specified under:

Where a plaintiff withdraws from a suit or abandons part of his claim without the permission of the Court under Order XXIII Rule 1 CPC, the consequence is that he:

Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, every suit shall be instituted in the Court of:

A files a money suit against B, a sole defendant, who resides at Gurgaon, carries on business at Faridabad and where the cause of action arose wholly at Delhi. Under Section 20 of the CPC, A may file the suit at:

Anticipatory bail—the grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence—is dealt with under which provision of the BNSS, 2023?

Under Section 23 of the BNSS, 2023, a Judicial Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding:

The BNSS, 2023 for the first time mandates that every State Government shall prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme. This obligation is contained in:

A novel feature of the BNSS, 2023 is the provision for trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender. This is provided for under:

Under Section 184 of the BNSS, 2023, where rape or attempt to commit rape is under investigation, the victim shall be sent for medical examination by a registered medical practitioner within:

Under Section 187 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum aggregate period for which a Magistrate may authorise police custody of an accused, even though the same may be sought at different stages of the investigation within the prescribed limit?

Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 permits a police officer to conduct a preliminary enquiry before registering an FIR. This option is available only where the cognizable offence is punishable with imprisonment for—

Under Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, it is mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence and to videograph the process where the offence is punishable with imprisonment for—

Where an offence is punishable with imprisonment for less than three years and the person sought to be arrested is infirm or above sixty years of age, Section 35(7) of the BNSS provides that—

Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 introduces trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender. Before commencing such a trial, the court must wait for a period of—

Under Section 479 of the BNSS, a first-time offender (one who has never been convicted of any offence in the past) is entitled to be released on bond by the court if he has undergone detention as an undertrial for a period extending up to—

The provision for anticipatory bail (grant of bail to a person apprehending arrest) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is contained in—

Under Section 23 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding three years, or a fine not exceeding—

Community service has been introduced as a recognised form of punishment under the new criminal codes. Under the Explanation to Section 23 of the BNSS, a convict performing community service—

Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 requires that the process of conducting a search or taking possession of any property be recorded through audio-video electronic means, preferably by mobile phone. The recording, with the signed list of seized items, must thereafter be—

For offences punishable with imprisonment for less than seven years (but more than three years), Section 35(3) of the BNSS provides that, in lieu of arrest, the police officer—

Under Section 193(9) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, further investigation after filing of the police report may ordinarily be completed within ninety days, and any extension beyond that period—

The mechanism for disposal of mercy petitions of a convict sentenced to death, including a timeline for filing such petition before the President after the dismissal of appeals, is now expressly provided in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 under—

Section 173(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 statutorily recognises the concept of a 'Zero FIR'. Its effect is that—

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision corresponding to the registration of a first information report in a cognizable case (formerly Section 154 CrPC), and which now also gives statutory recognition to the 'Zero FIR', is contained in:

For a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain a prima facie case. The period prescribed for completing such preliminary enquiry under Section 173(3) BNSS is:

Where information is received of an offence made punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more, the BNSS makes it mandatory for the officer in charge of the police station to cause a forensic expert to visit the crime scene and to videograph the process. This obligation is contained in:

Under Section 105 BNSS, the process of search of a place and seizure of property, including preparation of the list of seized items and signing by witnesses, shall:

Under Section 479(1) BNSS, an undertrial prisoner who is a first-time offender (not previously convicted) shall ordinarily be released on bond by the Court once he has undergone detention up to:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, dacoity requires that the robbery be committed conjointly by:

The offence of 'petty organised crime', newly created by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'culpable homicide' (the genus) and 'murder' (the species) are defined respectively in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offences of criminal breach of trust and cheating (which in the IPC were scattered across several sections) have each been consolidated into single provisions. These are respectively:

'X' merely instigates 'Y' to commit a robbery, but the robbery is never in fact committed and no other act follows. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is correct?

The offence of criminal conspiracy under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for attempt to murder (corresponding to Section 307 of the IPC) is provided in:

Which of the following statements about the offence of murder under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is INCORRECT?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of rape is defined under:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for the offence of murder is provided in:

The doctrine of 'common intention', under which each of several persons doing a criminal act in furtherance of the common intention of all is liable as if it were done by him alone, is contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Which of the following statements correctly describes the offence of 'snatching' newly introduced as a distinct offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under Section 104 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, whoever causes the death of any person by a rash or negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide is, in the ordinary case, punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:

The offence relating to 'dowry death', whereby the husband or his relative is deemed to have caused the death of a woman occurring otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of marriage preceded by cruelty for dowry, is dealt with under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Cruelty to a woman by her husband or a relative of the husband is made punishable under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

The offence of 'gang rape', under which each person in a group raping a woman is deemed to have committed the offence and is liable to rigorous imprisonment of not less than twenty years extendable to life, is contained in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

The provision dealing with 'acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India' (covering secession, armed rebellion and subversive activities), which replaces the former offence of sedition, is found in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

'Organised crime', covering offences such as kidnapping, extortion, contract killing and cyber-crime committed by a crime syndicate as a continuing unlawful activity, is introduced as a substantive offence for the first time in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in:

Which of the following is a new kind of punishment introduced by Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 that was not among the punishments listed in the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children a Fundamental Right, applies to children of which age group?

Under the Constitution, the retirement age of a Judge of the Supreme Court and of a Judge of a High Court respectively are:

If a question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill under Article 110, whose decision is declared final by the Constitution?

The power of a High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and 'for any other purpose' is conferred by which Article?

The Constitution of India vests residuary powers of legislation in:

The separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State is a directive contained in which Article?

The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, enabling the President to refer a question of law or fact of public importance for its opinion, is provided by:

The directive to the State to endeavour to secure for citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India is found in:

The freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) may be restricted by the State only on the grounds specified in Article 19(2). Which of the following is NOT one of those specified grounds?

Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden, with enforcement of any resulting disability made a punishable offence, under which Article?

Under Article 239AA of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the administrator of the National Capital Territory of Delhi appointed under Article 239 is designated as the:

Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for a period of how long from the date appointed for its first meeting, under Article 243E of the Constitution of India?

The provisions relating to disqualification of members on the ground of defection are contained in which Schedule of the Constitution of India, inserted by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985?

If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, whose decision under Article 110 of the Constitution of India shall be final?

Under the Constitution of India, a Judge of a High Court holds office, subject to the provisions of Article 217, until he attains the age of:

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India first propound the doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution?

Article 21A of the Constitution of India, which makes the right to free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children, was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment?

The power of superintendence of a High Court over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction is conferred by which Article of the Constitution of India?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no confession made by a person while in the custody of a police officer can be proved against him unless it is made:

Which Section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 makes the opinion of experts a relevant fact?

Where the question is whether a person has committed the dowry death of a woman and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected by him to cruelty or harassment in connection with a demand for dowry, the Court under Section 118 of the BSA:

On the question whether the suicide of a married woman was abetted by her husband, where she committed suicide within seven years of marriage and was subjected to cruelty, the Court under Section 117 of the BSA:

Under Section 57 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where an electronic or digital record is produced from proper custody, such record is:

The provision in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 that "no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact" is contained in:

Under Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an accomplice:

Statements as to the cause of death or the circumstances of the transaction resulting in death, made by a person who is dead (the dying declaration), are made relevant under which Section of the BSA?

Under Section 109 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon:

The rule that no tenant of immovable property shall, during the continuance of the tenancy, be permitted to deny that the landlord had a title at the beginning of the tenancy is contained in which Section of the BSA?

Under the BSA, where a document required by law to be attested is a registered document (not being a will) registered under the Registration Act, it shall not be necessary to call an attesting witness to prove its execution:

Under Section 2 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the definition of "evidence" now expressly includes:

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which repeals the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, consists of how many sections?

When the Court has to form an opinion as to the person by whom a document was written or signed, the opinion of a person acquainted with that person's handwriting is made relevant by which Section of the BSA?

Under Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, an electronic record is admissible as a computer output only when accompanied by a certificate, which must now be signed by the person in charge of the device and also by:

After the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2019, the period of twelve months for making an arbitral award under Section 29A(1) (in matters other than international commercial arbitration) is reckoned from:

Where an arbitral award is silent on post-award interest, Section 31(7)(b) (as amended in 2015) provides that the awarded sum shall carry interest at the rate of:

Under Section 9(3), once an arbitral tribunal has been constituted, a court shall not entertain an application for interim measures under Section 9(1) unless:

Section 11(13), as amended in 2019, requires that an application for appointment of an arbitrator be disposed of as expeditiously as possible, with an endeavour to dispose of the matter within:

Under Section 16(2), a plea that the arbitral tribunal does not have jurisdiction must be raised:

If the arbitral tribunal rejects a plea that it lacks jurisdiction under Section 16, the aggrieved party's remedy is to:

A person who falls within any of the categories specified in the Seventh Schedule is, under Section 12(5), ineligible to be appointed as an arbitrator. The Supreme Court in Perkins Eastman Architects DPC v. HSCC (India) Ltd. (2019) held that such an ineligible person:

Where an arbitration agreement provides that a claim shall be barred unless some step to commence arbitral proceedings is taken within a fixed time, Section 43(3) empowers the Court to extend that time if it is of the opinion that:

Under Section 43(4), where the Court orders that an arbitral award be set aside, in computing the period of limitation for fresh proceedings on the dispute, the Court shall exclude:

After the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015, the effect of merely filing an application under Section 34 to set aside an award is that:

The ground of 'patent illegality appearing on the face of the award' under Section 34(2A) is available to set aside:

Compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract under Section 73 is recoverable for loss which:

Under Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an act done or abstinence made by the promisee or any other person 'at the desire of the promisor' constitutes:

In Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt, it was held that a person who performs the act stated in a reward offer, but without knowledge of the offer, is:

An agreement made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other is enforceable, despite absence of consideration, only if it is:

A promise, in writing and signed by the debtor, to pay a debt barred by the law of limitation is:

Following Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, an agreement entered into by a minor is:

Where necessaries suited to his condition in life are supplied to a person incapable of contracting (such as a minor or lunatic), the supplier under Section 68:

Under Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is unlawful in all the following cases EXCEPT where it:

A contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible or unlawful by reason of an event the promisor could not prevent, becomes void under Section 56. This embodies the doctrine of:

A signed written acknowledgment of liability made before the expiration of the prescribed period has, under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, the effect that:

Section 14 of the Limitation Act excludes, in computing the period of limitation, the time during which the plaintiff has been:

Under Section 17 of the Limitation Act, where a suit is based upon the fraud of the defendant, the period of limitation does not begin to run until:

Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that on the determination of the period limited for a person to institute a suit for possession of any property:

Under Article 65 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit for possession of immovable property based on title must be brought within twelve years, the time being reckoned from:

An application to set aside a decree passed ex parte, governed by Article 123 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963, must ordinarily be made within:

Article 137 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 (the residuary article for applications) prescribes a period of:

An appeal to a High Court from a decree or order under the Code of Civil Procedure is governed by Article 116 of the Schedule, which prescribes a limitation period of:

After the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, which of the following best describes the present position regarding specific performance under Section 10 of the Act?

Section 20A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (inserted by the 2018 Amendment) provides that in a suit involving a contract relating to an infrastructure project specified in the Schedule:

Section 14A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, inserted by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, empowers the court to:

The proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 lays down that a court shall not make a declaration of legal character or right where the plaintiff:

Which of the following is the correct position regarding the overriding effect of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 under Section 21?

The provisions creating Commercial Divisions and Commercial Appellate Divisions of a High Court under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 apply to a High Court that:

The Commercial Courts (Amendment) Act, 2018 introduced, among other changes, the concept of pre-institution mediation. Apart from inserting Section 12A, it also:

Section 69 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 bars certain suits by or on behalf of an unregistered firm. However, the bar does NOT affect:

Under Section 3 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, a limited liability partnership is:

Under Section 6 of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, the minimum number of partners required for a limited liability partnership is:

After the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (Amendment) Act, 2019, the punishment prescribed under Section 6 for aggravated penetrative sexual assault is rigorous imprisonment for a term not less than -

Where a person is prosecuted for committing, abetting or attempting to commit an offence under Sections 3, 5, 7 or 9 of the POCSO Act, 2012, Section 29 requires the Special Court to -

Under Section 52 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882, a right granted by one person to another to do or continue to do something in or upon the immovable property of the grantor, which would otherwise be unlawful, and which does not amount to an easement or an interest in the property, is termed a: