Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 7 — Questions & Solutions

Select the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXONERATE':

If in a certain year the 1st of March is a Wednesday, on what day of the week will the 1st of April of the same (non-leap) year fall?

Who assumed office as the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025?

Who was re-appointed as the Attorney General for India for a two-year term with effect from 1 October 2025?

The Nobel Peace Prize for 2025 was awarded to which of the following?

Who became the 26th Chief Election Commissioner of India, assuming charge on 19 February 2025 as the first CEC appointed under the 2023 appointment law?

On which date did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, come into force, replacing the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

Who is the first Chairperson of the Lokpal of India to be appointed and sworn in after the post fell vacant in May 2022, taking oath on 10 March 2024?

The 2025 Booker Prize (for fiction in English) was won by which author for the novel 'Flesh'?

The 59th Jnanpith Award (for 2024) was conferred on which Hindi writer, the first from Chhattisgarh to be so honoured?

The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' embodies which fundamental principle of criminal law?

In jurisprudence, the proposition that law is the command of a sovereign backed by sanction is most closely associated with which theory?

The legal maxim 'volenti non fit injuria' means:

Choose the option that correctly completes the analogy: 'Plaintiff is to Defendant as Appellant is to ____'.

A sum of money is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:5. If C receives Rs. 1,200 more than A, what is the total sum?

Select the word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXCULPATE'.

In a certain code, if 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU', how would the word 'JUDGE' be written in the same code?

Who took oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in November 2025, succeeding Justice B.R. Gavai?

The Nobel Peace Prize for 2025 was awarded to Maria Corina Machado for her work in promoting democracy in which country?

Senior Advocate R. Venkataramani, re-appointed for a further two-year term with effect from 1 October 2025, holds which constitutional/statutory office?

The legal maxim 'actus curiae neminem gravabit' embodies which principle?

Which jurist propounded the theory that law is the command of the sovereign backed by sanction, treating only positive law as the proper subject of jurisprudence?

In Hohfeld's scheme of jural relations, the jural correlative of a 'right' (claim-right) is a:

The maxim 'expressio unius est exclusio alterius', a rule of statutory interpretation, means:

The doctrine of 'stare decisis' is most closely associated with which source of law?

Which of the following pairs of legal maxim and meaning is INCORRECTLY matched?

If in a certain code 'FROST' is written as 'GSPTU', then how will 'GUEST' be written in the same code?

A is the brother of B. C is the mother of B. D is the father of C. How is A related to D?

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank to form a grammatically correct sentence: 'Neither the judge nor the lawyers ______ satisfied with the adjournment.'

Choose the word that correctly completes the sentence: The witness gave a ___ account, omitting no relevant detail.

Select the most accurate meaning of the word: 'Pellucid'.

Choose the option nearest in meaning to the idiom: 'A pyrrhic victory'.

Select the word that is the synonym of 'Quixotic'.

Fill in the blank with the correct option: Hardly had the hearing begun ___ the power failed.

Choose the most accurate one-word substitution for: 'A statement that can be interpreted in more than one way so as to deceive or mislead'.

Select the word that is the antonym of 'Ephemeral'.

Choose the option that correctly converts the sentence into reported (indirect) speech: He said, "I shall file the appeal tomorrow."

Choose the option that best fills the blank: "The witness deposed in a manner so ______ that the court found it difficult to record a coherent statement."

Identify the part of the sentence that contains a grammatical error: "Neither the defendant nor his lawyers (a)/ was present (b)/ when the case (c)/ was called for hearing. (d)"

Select the word that means the same as the idiom 'to throw in the towel'.

Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition: "The judgment was based ______ a misreading of the relevant statutory provision."

Choose the option that correctly converts the sentence into indirect speech: "The judge said to the counsel, 'Why have you not filed the rejoinder?'"

Select the word nearest in meaning to 'PERFUNCTORY'.

Choose the correct one-word substitute for 'a person who renounces a religious or political belief or principle'.

Fill in the blank with the correct word: "The new evidence was so compelling that it ______ the earlier finding of the trial court."

Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of the idiom 'a moot point'.

Choose the word that correctly completes the analogy: 'Plaintiff is to Defendant as Appellant is to ______'.

Read the passage and answer the question. "While the principle that an accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty is foundational, certain special statutes reverse this burden once the prosecution establishes the basic facts. Such reverse-onus clauses have been upheld where they bear a rational nexus to the object of the legislation and do not render the accused's defence illusory." According to the passage, a reverse-onus clause is acceptable when it:

Choose the option that correctly identifies the meaning of the underlined idiom in the sentence: "When the auditors began probing the accounts, the manager realised the game was up."

Choose the word which is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word: ENNUI

Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word: PERFIDIOUS

One word substitution: A person who is indifferent to pleasure or pain and remains calm in adversity is called a/an ______.

Pick out the most appropriate word to fill in the blank: The witness gave a ______ account of the incident, leaving no detail unexplained.

Choose the word that is most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to: LACONIC

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: The accused was charged ______ theft and produced before the magistrate.

One word substitution: A statement that is taken to be true without proof, serving as a starting point for reasoning, is called a/an ______.

Under Section 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a suit for the partition of immovable property shall, subject to the pecuniary or other limitations prescribed, be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction -

The power of the Supreme Court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding from a High Court or other civil court in one State to a High Court or other civil court in another State is contained in -

A decree is passed ex parte against a defendant after the suit is decided on merits in his absence. With respect to an appeal under Section 96 CPC, which of the following is correct?

Under Section 96(3) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal shall lie from a decree -

An appeal to the High Court from a decree passed in appeal by a subordinate court (a second appeal) under Section 100 CPC lies only -

Where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order is heard and decided by a single Judge of a High Court, Section 100A CPC provides that -

Restitution, that is, placing the parties in the position they would have occupied but for an erroneous decree which has since been varied or reversed, is provided for under -

Under Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a period is fixed or granted by the Court for the doing of any act prescribed or allowed by the Code, the Court may enlarge such period -

Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the defendant shall ordinarily present a written statement of his defence within thirty days from the date of service of summons, which the court may, for reasons recorded in writing, extend up to -

A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed may apply for setting aside the decree, on showing that the summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, under -

In a suit for partition of immovable property, under Order XX Rule 18 CPC the court first passes a -

Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (summary procedure) applies, among others, to suits upon bills of exchange, hundies and promissory notes. In such a summary suit, the defendant -

Under Order II Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes, a portion of his claim arising from one cause of action, the consequence is that he -

A court trying any suit may, if it is proved by affidavit or otherwise that the property in dispute is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by a party, grant a temporary injunction. This power is conferred by:

Under Section 35-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the maximum amount of compensatory costs that a court may award in respect of a false or vexatious claim or defence is:

A suit for recovery of immovable property situate within the jurisdiction of the Delhi courts, with or without rent or profits, must ordinarily be instituted in the court within whose local limits the property is situate. This rule of place of suing is contained in:

Where a decree is passed ex parte against a defendant, his remedy to have it set aside on the ground that summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing lies under:

Section 89 CPC, which empowers the court to refer a dispute to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement (including Lok Adalat) or mediation, was upheld and its working clarified by the Supreme Court in:

The defendant is required to present his written statement within thirty days from the service of summons; the court may, recording reasons, extend this period, but the written statement shall not be filed beyond:

Section 100-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order is heard and decided by a Single Judge of a High Court:

The rule that a plaintiff who omits to sue in respect of, or relinquishes, any portion of his claim arising from one cause of action shall not afterwards sue for the portion so omitted or relinquished is embodied in:

Under Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a foreign judgment shall NOT be conclusive in which of the following situations?

The court may at any stage of the proceedings allow either party to alter or amend his pleadings in such manner and on such terms as may be just, all such amendments being necessary for determining the real questions in controversy. This power is conferred by:

All questions arising between the parties to the suit in which the decree was passed, and relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree, are to be determined by the executing court and not by a separate suit. This is provided in:

Mark the INCORRECT statement regarding the doctrine of res judicata under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908:

Regarding the maximum period for which an undertrial prisoner may be detained, Section 479 BNSS introduces a fresh concession by providing that a first-time offender shall be released on bond if he has undergone detention for:

Under Section 193 BNSS, in an offence punishable with imprisonment for not less than ten years, life imprisonment or death, the police report on completion of investigation must ordinarily be forwarded within a maximum period of:

Section 530 BNSS, which has no counterpart in the CrPC, provides that all trials, inquiries and proceedings, including issue and service of summons and recording of evidence:

A Magistrate of the first class who passes a sentence of imprisonment under the BNSS is, as a general rule, competent to award a term not exceeding:

The victim's right to be informed of the progress of investigation, within ninety days, by the police officer, including through electronic communication, is conferred by which provision of the BNSS?

Under Section 35(3) BNSS, where the offence for which a person is to be arrested is punishable with imprisonment for less than three years and the person is infirm or above sixty years, the general scheme of the section reflects the principle laid down in which leading Supreme Court decision on unnecessary arrests?

The power of the Court to alter or add to any charge at any time before judgment is pronounced is contained in which section of the BNSS, corresponding to Section 216 of the CrPC?

When the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 came into force, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 was repealed by which section, which also saves pending appeals, applications, trials and investigations to be dealt with under the old Code?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where a police officer has reason to suspect a person of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment which may extend to seven years but considers arrest unnecessary, the obligation to issue a written notice directing that person to appear is contained in:

Under Section 187 BNSS, in an investigation relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for ten years or more, the total period within which the accused must be released on default bail if no charge-sheet is filed is:

Under Section 187 BNSS, the maximum aggregate period of police custody (whether in one stretch or in parts) that a Magistrate may authorise during an investigation is:

The provision in the BNSS which statutorily recognises the registration of a 'Zero FIR' irrespective of the territorial jurisdiction in which the cognizable offence was committed is:

Under Section 176 BNSS, the visit of a forensic expert to the scene of crime and videography of the process is made mandatory in respect of offences punishable with imprisonment for a term of:

Under Section 23 BNSS, a Court of a Magistrate of the first class may pass a sentence of imprisonment not exceeding:

The provision under the BNSS that, for the first time, permits a full inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia where a proclaimed offender has absconded to evade trial with no immediate prospect of arrest is:

Under Section 472 BNSS, a convict under sentence of death (or his legal heir/relative) may file a mercy petition to the President or Governor within:

The power of a Magistrate to order maintenance of wives, children and parents, with the added statutory recognition of interim maintenance during the pendency of proceedings, is contained in which provision of the BNSS?

Under Section 479 BNSS, a first-time offender who has never been convicted of any offence in the past is entitled to release on bond on having undergone detention up to:

Under Section 193 BNSS, where the investigation relates to an offence of rape under Section 64 BNS, the investigation is required to be completed within:

Under Section 230 BNSS, copies of the police report and the documents to be supplied to the accused must be furnished by the Magistrate:

The omnibus provision of the BNSS declaring that all trials, inquiries and proceedings, including issuance and service of summons and recording of evidence, may be held in electronic mode is:

Under Section 173(3) BNSS, on receipt of information of a cognizable offence punishable for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge may, with the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary inquiry within:

Under Section 472 BNSS, where a mercy petition has been rejected by the Governor, a petition to the President must thereafter be made within:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the provision corresponding to the maintenance of wives, children and parents (formerly Section 125 CrPC) is now contained in:

Match List-I (Offence under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023) with List-II (Section) and select the correct answer using the code below: List-I: (a) Murder (b) Punishment for murder (c) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt (d) Causing death by negligence List-II: 1. Section 117 2. Section 101 3. Section 106 4. Section 103

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' intends to kill 'B' but, due to a bad aim, the shot kills 'C', a bystander. 'A' is liable for the murder of 'C'. The principle that fastens this liability is known as:

Under Section 70(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, gang rape committed on a woman under eighteen years of age is punishable with:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'culpable homicide' is defined in one section while the offence of 'murder' is defined in the immediately following section. Which pair of sections correctly corresponds to these two definitions respectively?

Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduces a distinct punishment where a group murders a person on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief. What is the minimum number of persons that must act in concert for this sub-section to apply?

'A', already undergoing a sentence of imprisonment for life, commits murder of a fellow prisoner inside jail. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which section deals with the punishment for murder committed by a person who is under sentence of imprisonment for life?

Under Section 80 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (dowry death), one essential ingredient is the period within which the death of the woman must occur, reckoned from the date of her marriage. That period is:

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 has, for the first time, created a separate substantive offence of 'snatching' (sudden, quick or forcible seizure of movable property). Under which section is this new offence of snatching placed?

Under Section 310 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, an act of robbery becomes 'dacoity' only when committed (or attempted) conjointly by a certain minimum number of persons, including those present and aiding. That minimum number is:

The offence formerly known as 'sedition' under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code has been replaced in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 by an offence titled 'acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India'. Which section contains this offence?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the general definition of 'criminal conspiracy' is contained in which section?

In the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'voluntarily causing hurt' and 'voluntarily causing grievous hurt' are dealt with in two separate sections. Which pair correctly identifies the punishing sections for these two offences respectively?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offences of 'criminal breach of trust' and 'cheating' are housed in which sections respectively?

The offence of 'abetment of suicide' under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is contained in which section?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the substantive offence of 'rape' is defined in which section, and the ordinary punishment for rape is prescribed in which section?

'A', intending to kill 'B', fires at 'B' but the shot misses and instead kills 'C', a bystander whom 'A' did not know. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'A' is guilty of the murder of 'C'. The principle applied here is best described as:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'defamation' is contained in which section?

The offence of 'kidnapping' (covering both kidnapping from India and kidnapping from lawful guardianship) is defined under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 in which section?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'culpable homicide' and the offence of 'murder' are respectively defined in -

Which of the following Supreme Court decisions did NOT propound or apply the basic structure doctrine in relation to the amending power under Article 368?

Under the Constitution of India, the eleven Fundamental Duties enumerated in Article 51A are:

Under the Constitution of India, the power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact of public importance is contained in:

The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, which sought to set up the National Judicial Appointments Commission, was struck down by the Supreme Court as violative of the basic structure in:

The provisions relating to disqualification of a member of a House on the ground of defection are contained in:

Under Article 243-E of the Constitution, every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for:

Residuary power to make any law with respect to a matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or the State List is vested in Parliament by:

The power of a High Court to issue writs not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also 'for any other purpose' is derived from:

Under Article 110(3) of the Constitution, if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of which authority is final?

Parliament may by law provide for the abolition or creation of a Legislative Council in a State under Article 169, but only if the Legislative Assembly of that State passes a resolution:

Special provisions with respect to the National Capital Territory of Delhi, including the constitution of a Legislative Assembly, were introduced into the Constitution by the insertion of:

Under Article 239AA, the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi may make laws on matters in the State List except those falling under:

The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution, limiting the amending power of Parliament under Article 368, was first propounded by the Supreme Court in:

Article 17 of the Constitution of India deals with:

Which one of the following is NOT a writ that a High Court is empowered to issue under Article 226 of the Constitution?

Article 21-A of the Constitution, which makes the right to free and compulsory education a fundamental right, applies to children of the age of:

The advisory opinion rendered by the Supreme Court to the President on a reference under Article 143 of the Constitution is:

Under which Article of the Constitution of India are appointments, posting and promotion of district judges in a State made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to that State?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the relevancy of a statement made by a person as to the cause of his death (dying declaration) is governed by:

A confession made to a police officer shall not be proved against a person accused of any offence under which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

So much of the information received from an accused in police custody as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered may be proved. This rule (formerly Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act) now finds place in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 as:

When the Court has to form an opinion as to the identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinion of a person specially skilled in such matters is relevant. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, opinions of experts are dealt with under:

The admissibility of electronic or digital records, including the requirement of a certificate, is provided under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Which of the following provisions is a NEW section introduced by the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, having no corresponding section in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact lies upon him by virtue of:

The rule that the fact of a child being born during the continuance of a valid marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, no particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact. This principle is embodied in:

An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person, and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon an accomplice's corroborated testimony. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, this is provided in:

Leading questions are dealt with under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

The order of examinations of a witness, namely examination-in-chief, cross-examination and re-examination, is laid down under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Communications made between a husband and wife during marriage are protected from disclosure under which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the Court may presume that a document purporting to be thirty years old, produced from proper custody, was duly signed and executed. This presumption is found in:

The doctrine of estoppel, whereby a person who by his declaration, act or omission has caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon it is precluded from denying its truth, is codified in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 under:

A settlement agreement drawn up and signed by the parties at the conclusion of conciliation proceedings under Part III of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:

Which of the following correctly states the duty of confidentiality in conciliation proceedings under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

Where the parties fail to agree on a procedure for appointing a sole arbitrator and fail to appoint one within thirty days of a request to do so, the appointment shall, on a party's request, be made by:

Under Section 10 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties fail to determine the number of arbitrators, the arbitral tribunal shall consist of:

In a matter other than international commercial arbitration, under Section 29A of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 the arbitral award shall be made by the tribunal within a period of:

Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, arbitral proceedings in respect of a particular dispute are deemed to commence under Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on the date on which:

An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 must be made within three months of receipt of the award; the court may, on sufficient cause, entertain it within a further period of:

Under Section 16 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a plea that the arbitral tribunal does not have jurisdiction shall be raised:

Which of the following statements regarding the arbitration clause under Section 16 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is correct?

Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, a party who seeks the appointment of an arbitrator because the agreed appointment procedure has failed shall make a request to the Supreme Court or High Court (or the designated institution) under:

A party seeking an interim measure of protection from a court before or during arbitral proceedings, or before enforcement of the award, would file an application under which provision of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

A contract is said to be induced by 'undue influence' under Section 16 where one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage. Which of the following relationships does the section NOT itself presume to involve a position to dominate?

Under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, every person is competent to contract who:

A 'bailment' under Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act essentially requires:

Under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, a contract of guarantee:

Consideration, as defined in Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, must move:

An agreement made without consideration is valid even though there is no consideration, if it is in writing and registered and made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in near relation to each other. This rule is contained in:

Where a person incapable of contracting, or anyone whom he is legally bound to support, is supplied by another with necessaries suited to his condition in life, the supplier is entitled to be reimbursed:

'A' finds 'B's lost nephew and then learns that 'B' had announced a reward for finding the boy. 'A' claims the reward. He is:

A proposal may be revoked at any time:

Section 9 of the Limitation Act, 1963 embodies the principle that:

A suit against a person in whom property has become vested in trust for a specific purpose, to follow such trust property, is governed by Section 10 of the Limitation Act, 1963 to the effect that:

In computing the period of limitation for an appeal, Section 12 of the Limitation Act, 1963 directs exclusion of:

Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 permits exclusion of the time during which the plaintiff has been prosecuting another civil proceeding, provided that proceeding was:

Where a suit is based upon the fraud of the defendant, Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that the period of limitation does not begin to run until:

For an acknowledgment of liability to give rise to a fresh period of limitation under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963, it must be:

Section 19 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that a fresh period of limitation is computed from the time of:

Under Section 21(1) of the Limitation Act, 1963, where a new plaintiff or defendant is substituted or added after the institution of a suit, the suit shall, as regards that party, be deemed to have been instituted:

Under Section 16(c) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended in 2018), a plaintiff seeking specific performance must:

The proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 bars a court from making a declaration of legal character or right where the plaintiff:

Under Section 36 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, preventive relief is granted at the discretion of the court by:

Which of the following is NOT a ground on which an injunction can be refused under Section 41 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

Under Section 13 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, an appeal from a judgment or order of a Commercial Court at the level of a District Judge or of a Commercial Division of a High Court must be filed within:

Under the proviso to Section 13 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, an appeal against an order of a Commercial Court/Commercial Division shall lie only from such orders as are specifically enumerated under:

Commercial Courts at the District level are constituted under Section 3 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 by:

Which of the following acts is NOT within the implied authority of a partner under Section 19 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, in the absence of any usage or custom of trade to the contrary?

Under Section 25 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the liability of a partner for the acts of the firm done while he is a partner is:

A minor is admitted to the benefits of a partnership firm. Under Section 30 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932:

For the speedy trial of offences under the POCSO Act, Section 28 requires the State Government, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court, to designate as a Special Court for each district a:

Section 35 of the POCSO Act prescribes a time-frame for trial. The evidence of the child shall be recorded within ____ of the Special Court taking cognizance, and the trial shall, as far as possible, be completed within ____ of such cognizance.

Under Section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in a lease of immovable property the price paid or promised for the transfer of the right to enjoy the property is called the: