Delhi Judiciary Mock Test 6 — Questions & Solutions

Fill in the blank with the correct option: 'Neither the manager nor his assistants ____ available to attend the inquiry.'

The Latin maxim 'ignorantia juris non excusat' embodies which legal principle?

With effect from 1st July 2024, the Indian Penal Code, 1860 stood repealed and replaced by a new substantive criminal code. The new code is known as:

The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' embodies which fundamental principle of criminal liability?

In a certain code, 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU'. Following the same rule, how will 'JUDGE' be written?

Choose the option that most nearly expresses the meaning of the legal term 'ESTOPPEL':

The three new criminal laws, including the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 which replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860, came into force throughout India with effect from:

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado, who is associated with the pro-democracy movement of which country?

The Constitution (104th Amendment) Act, 2019 brought about two changes effective from 25th January 2020. Which of the following correctly states one of them?

If elevated as per the present order of seniority, which sitting judge of the Supreme Court is expected to become the first woman Chief Justice of India in 2027?

The maxim 'actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea' conveys which of the following principles of criminal law?

In jurisprudence, the theory that law is 'the command of the sovereign backed by sanction' is most closely associated with:

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'EXACERBATE':

Select the option that correctly completes the analogy: 'Plaintiff : Defendant :: Appellant : ____'

In a certain code, 'COURT' is written as 'DPVSU'. Following the same rule, how will 'JUDGE' be written in that code?

A father is now three times as old as his son. After 12 years, the father will be twice as old as the son. What is the present age of the son?

Choose the option that fills the blank with the grammatically correct word: 'The Bench observed that the evidence on record was not _____ to sustain a conviction.'

In May 2026 the Union Cabinet approved a proposal to increase the sanctioned strength of judges of the Supreme Court of India (including the Chief Justice) from 34 to:

The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado for her struggle for democratic rights. She is an opposition leader from which country?

The tenure of Attorney General for India, R. Venkataramani, was extended by the Centre in 2025 for a further period of:

Gyanesh Kumar, who assumed charge in February 2025, was the first Chief Election Commissioner appointed under which statute?

The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam), which provides reservation of seats for women, inserted into the Constitution which new Articles?

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 came into force on:

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, contains how many sections?

The maxim 'contemporanea expositio est optima et fortissima in lege' is a rule of statutory interpretation which means that:

The principle of natural justice expressed by the maxim 'nemo judex in causa sua' embodies which rule?

In a certain code, 'PAINT' is written as 'QBJOU' and 'COLOR' is written as 'DPMPS'. How is the word 'TRACE' written in that code?

Pointing to a photograph, a man said, 'She is the daughter of the only son of my mother.' How is the woman in the photograph related to the man?

Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence: 'The witness, along with his two associates, ____ present in court when the order was passed.'

Convert into reported (indirect) speech: The witness said, 'I saw the accused running away last night.'

Choose the option that correctly replaces the underlined phrase: 'The committee have submitted their report to the Chief Justice.'

Select the word that means 'a person who knows many foreign languages'.

Read the passage and answer the question. 'The rule of law presupposes that disputes are resolved not by the arbitrary will of those in power but by settled principles applied impartially. Where discretion is unavoidable, it must be structured and confined by reasoned standards rather than left to caprice.' According to the passage, discretion is acceptable only when it is —

Choose the option that expresses the correct one-word substitution for: 'A statement that is open to two interpretations.'

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'The accused was acquitted ______ the charge of theft for want of evidence.'

Identify the sentence that is grammatically correct.

Choose the word that is most nearly SIMILAR in meaning to 'PRECEDENT'.

Select the word that is NEAREST in meaning to the bracketed word: The witness gave a (laconic) reply to every question put by the counsel.

Choose the option that is the ANTONYM of the bracketed word: The judge's (acrimonious) remarks during the hearing surprised the bar.

Identify the meaning of the idiom: After months of delay, the parties finally decided to 'bury the hatchet'.

Choose the option that best completes the sentence: Hardly had the court risen ____ the lawyers began discussing the verdict.

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Neither the registrar nor the clerks (a)/ was present (b)/ when the file (c)/ went missing. (d)'

Select the word NEAREST in meaning to the bracketed word: The minister's speech was full of (platitudes) that impressed no one.

Choose the option that correctly fills the blank with the appropriate preposition: The accused was charged ____ theft and released on bail.

Identify the figure of speech in the sentence: 'The pen is mightier than the sword.'

Select the ANTONYM of the bracketed word: The senior advocate was known for his (verbose) submissions.

Choose the word that correctly completes the sentence: The two contracts are not identical; there is a subtle ____ between them.

Choose the option that best fills the blank to form a grammatically correct conditional: If the appellant ____ the deadline, the appeal would not have been dismissed.

Select the one-word substitute for: 'A statement that contradicts itself and yet may be true.'

Identify the meaning of the idiom: The new policy was a 'damp squib' that failed to excite the public.

Choose the correct passive form of the sentence: 'The committee will review the application tomorrow.'

Select the most accurate meaning of the word: 'Obstreperous'.

Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to 'Munificent'.

Select the option that is the synonym of the bracketed word: His (truculent) reply offended everyone at the meeting.

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option: She is well versed ___ the procedural rules of the court.

Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: 'Neither the lawyers nor the judge were (a)/ aware of the (b)/ amendment that had (c)/ come into force last week. (d)'

Temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders during the pendency of a suit are governed primarily by:

The general power of the High Court or the District Court to transfer and withdraw any suit, appeal or other proceeding pending before any subordinate Court is contained in:

Where, on the death of a defendant, the right to sue survives, an application for substitution of the legal representatives of the deceased must ordinarily be made within ninety days. On failure to make such application within the limitation period, the suit, as against the deceased defendant:

The saving of the inherent power of the Court to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the Court is expressly preserved by:

Immovable property of the judgment-debtor is sold in execution of a money decree. A person claiming an interest in the property at the time of sale seeks to have the sale set aside by deposit under Order XXI Rule 89 CPC. To succeed, he must deposit in court, within the prescribed period of thirty days from the date of sale:

An issue is heard and finally decided by a court of limited jurisdiction which was competent to decide that issue. The same issue arises later between the same parties in a subsequent suit which that court of limited jurisdiction was not competent to try. As per Explanation VIII to Section 11 CPC, the earlier decision on the issue:

A suit is disposed of by a compromise decree under Order XXIII Rule 3 CPC. One of the parties later alleges that the compromise on which the decree was based was not lawful. Under Order XXIII Rule 3A CPC, his remedy is:

During the pendency of a suit the court finds that a person not already on the record is a necessary party whose presence is required to effectually and completely adjudicate the questions involved, but neither the plaintiff nor the defendant has applied to implead him. Under Order I Rule 10(2) CPC, the court:

Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the doctrine of res sub judice contained in Section 10 operates to:

Where a plea which ought to have been raised as a ground of defence or attack in a former suit is not so raised, a subsequent suit on that plea is barred. This rule is known as:

Under Section 96(4) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no appeal shall lie except on a question of law from a decree in a suit cognizable by Courts of Small Causes where the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed:

Section 100A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, as substituted by the Amendment Act, 2002, provides that where an appeal from an original or appellate decree or order is heard and decided by a single Judge of a High Court:

Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the defendant shall present his written statement within thirty days from the date of service of summons; the court may extend the time but the extension cannot, ordinarily, take the total period beyond:

Which of the following is NOT one of the modes of settlement of disputes outside the court that a court may refer the parties to under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

Under Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a plaint shall be rejected where:

A garnishee order, by which a court calls upon a third party who is indebted to the judgment-debtor to pay the debt into court, is provided for under the Code of Civil Procedure in:

Under Order XLI Rule 27 of the Code of Civil Procedure, additional evidence may be allowed to be produced in the appellate court where:

Where a defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed satisfies the court that the summons was not duly served, or that he was prevented by sufficient cause from appearing, his remedy to have the decree set aside lies under:

Objections to the executability of a decree, going to the questions arising between the parties to the suit relating to the execution, discharge or satisfaction of the decree, are to be determined by the executing court and not by a separate suit, under:

The power of the High Court to call for the record of a case decided by a subordinate court in which no appeal lies, where the subordinate court appears to have exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, is the power of:

Where a suit has been instituted in a court, the power to transfer it to another competent subordinate court on the application of a party or suo motu is conferred on the High Court and the District Court by:

Where and in so far as a decree is varied or reversed in appeal, the court which passed the decree is bound, on application, to place the parties in the position they would have occupied but for such decree. This relief of restitution is provided by:

An application for a temporary injunction to restrain a defendant from alienating or wasting the property in dispute during the pendency of a suit is governed by:

Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lays down that the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature -

Two suits between the same parties on the same matter in issue are pending, the second having been instituted after the first in a competent court. Under Section 10 CPC, the proper course for the court in the subsequently instituted suit is to -

A 64-year-old person is accused of a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment of two years. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, before such person can be arrested, the police must obtain the prior permission of an officer not below which rank?

Under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, for a cognizable offence punishable with imprisonment for three years or more but less than seven years, the officer in charge of the police station may, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists. Within what period must such preliminary enquiry be conducted?

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where information about a cognizable offence is given to an officer in charge of a police station by electronic communication, it shall be taken on record only when it is signed by the person giving it within:

Section 173(3) of the BNSS permits an officer in charge of a police station, with prior permission of an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police, to conduct a preliminary enquiry to ascertain whether a prima facie case exists. This option is available only where the cognizable offence is punishable with imprisonment for:

Under Section 35(7) of the BNSS, in the case of an offence punishable with imprisonment for less than three years, a police officer shall not arrest a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age without the prior permission of an officer:

Under Section 187 of the BNSS, for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to ten years, the fifteen days of police custody permitted may be sought by the Magistrate at any time during the initial:

Under Section 187(3) of the BNSS, an accused becomes entitled to be released on bail by default if the investigation is not completed within sixty days, where the offence is one for which the maximum imprisonment is:

Where, in an investigation into an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years or more, the BNSS makes it mandatory for a forensic expert to visit the crime scene to collect forensic evidence and to videograph the process, the relevant provision is:

Under Section 210 of the BNSS, a Magistrate of the first class may take cognizance of an offence upon all of the following EXCEPT:

A new safeguard introduced by Section 223 of the BNSS, governing cognizance of an offence on a private complaint, is that the Magistrate shall not take cognizance without:

In a summary trial under the BNSS, the Magistrate trying the case summarily shall not pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding:

Section 356 of the BNSS, which provides for inquiry, trial or judgment in absentia of a proclaimed offender, requires that the trial commence only after the expiry of:

Section 472 of the BNSS, dealing with mercy petitions in death sentence cases, provides that a convict (or his legal heir or relative) may, after being informed by the Superintendent of jail of dismissal of his appeal/special leave petition, submit a mercy petition within:

Under the BNSS, the power to grant anticipatory bail to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of a non-bailable offence is conferred concurrently on the High Court and the Court of Session by:

Under the BNSS provision for maintenance of wives, children and parents, an order for maintenance may be passed by a:

Community service, newly introduced as a form of punishment under the new criminal law, is defined as work which the court may order a convict to perform as a form of punishment that benefits the community, and for which the convict shall:

Under the BNSS, the obligation to prepare a scheme for providing funds for compensation to victims or their dependants who have suffered loss or injury as a result of a crime is cast upon the:

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the registration of a First Information Report relating to a cognizable offence committed outside the local jurisdiction of the police station (commonly called a 'Zero FIR') is recognised under which section?

Section 187 BNSS, dealing with detention of an accused beyond twenty-four hours, departs from the corresponding provision of the CrPC chiefly because it provides that the maximum permissible police custody of fifteen days may be:

Where an offence is punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more, Section 176(3) BNSS makes it mandatory for the investigating officer to ensure that:

Trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded and has no immediate prospect of arrest is now expressly provided for under which section of the BNSS?

Section 105 BNSS introduces a procedural safeguard during search and seizure by requiring that:

Under the proviso to Section 35(7) BNSS, no arrest shall be made of a person who is infirm or above sixty years of age for an offence punishable with imprisonment of less than three years, without the prior permission of an officer not below the rank of:

Section 472 BNSS, a provision having no equivalent in the CrPC, statutorily regulates the procedure for filing of:

Match the offence with its section under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023: (i) Dowry death (ii) Theft (iii) Robbery (iv) Criminal intimidation. Sections: 1. 303 2. 309 3. 80 4. 351. Select the correct code:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, on a first conviction for theft of property worth less than five thousand rupees, where the property is restored, the offender:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the provision specifying when the right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death of the assailant is:

Under Section 351 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, where the threat of criminal intimidation is to cause death or grievous hurt, the maximum imprisonment that may be imposed is:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the offence of 'organised crime' (which includes contract killing, land grabbing, extortion rackets and economic offences committed by a syndicate) is dealt with for the first time in:

'A', under unsoundness of mind, is at the time of the act incapable of knowing that what he is doing is wrong or contrary to law, and kills 'B'. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the exception that absolves 'A' is contained in:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the punishment for gang rape (Section 70) provides for a minimum rigorous imprisonment of:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, 'community service' has for the first time been introduced as a recognised form of punishment. Under which section is it enumerated among the punishments to which offenders are liable?

Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with murder committed by a group of five or more persons acting in concert on the ground of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief. The minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for each member of such group is:

'X' and 'Y' set out together to kill 'Z'. 'X' stands guard at the door holding a spear but strikes no blow, while 'Y' alone stabs 'Z' to death. Under which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is 'X' equally liable for the murder?

Which of the following is the correct distinction between Section 3(5) and Section 190 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, nothing is an offence which is done by a child. Which of the following correctly states the position regarding the age of a child?

Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law?

Section 14 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law, in good faith believes himself to be:

Section 106(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 enhances punishment for causing death by rash or negligent act where the offender:

Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, theft is 'snatching' under Section 304 where, in order to commit theft, the offender:

Section 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 creates a new offence relating to:

Which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with 'organised crime', and which section deals with 'terrorist act'?

Section 226 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 punishes an attempt to commit suicide with intent to compel or restrain a public servant from discharging his official duty. The punishment prescribed is:

Under the Constitution, the power of superintendence of a High Court over all courts and tribunals throughout the territory in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction is conferred by:

The expression 'State' for the purpose of Part III (Fundamental Rights) is defined in:

A proclamation of Emergency issued under Article 352 must be laid before each House of Parliament and ceases to operate at the expiration of one month unless it is, before that period, approved by resolutions of both Houses passed by:

Under Article 124(2), as it stands after the 99th Amendment was struck down, a Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President:

The provisions of Part IV-A of the Constitution, dealing with the Fundamental Duties of citizens, are contained in:

Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India?

The Fundamental Duties were inserted into the Constitution of India as Part IV-A (Article 51A) by which Constitution Amendment Act?

Under Article 51A of the Constitution of India, the duty of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to a child between the age of six and fourteen years was added by which amendment?

The writ jurisdiction of a High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India is wider than that of the Supreme Court under Article 32 chiefly because a High Court may issue writs:

Under Article 100 of the Constitution of India, in the case of an equality of votes in a House of Parliament, the presiding officer:

Under Article 110 of the Constitution of India, the question whether a Bill is a Money Bill is finally decided by:

The procedure for impeachment of the President of India is contained in which Article, and the resolution preferring the charge must be passed by:

Under Article 143 of the Constitution of India, when the President refers a question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court, the opinion rendered by the Court is:

In which decision did the Supreme Court of India lay down the 'creamy layer' exclusion and the rule that total reservation should not ordinarily exceed 50 per cent?

The Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014, which inserted Article 124A providing for the National Judicial Appointments Commission, was struck down by the Supreme Court in:

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described which Article as 'the very heart and soul' of the Constitution of India?

The right to free and compulsory education for children of the age of six to fourteen years is guaranteed as a Fundamental Right under which Article of the Constitution of India?

Under Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is NOT among the matters that a Bill must deal with to be classified as a Money Bill?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the relevancy of opinions of experts on a point of foreign law, science, art, or identity of handwriting or finger impressions is governed by which section?

Which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 corresponds to the rule that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence?

A makes a statement to B as to the cause of A's death. Later A dies of that injury. Under Section 26(a) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the statement is relevant -

A significant departure of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 from the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relates to accomplice evidence under Section 138. Under Section 138 of the BSA, a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon -

Under Section 139 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, for the proof of any fact -

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the admissibility of an electronic or digital record as evidence is dealt with in -

The certificate required to accompany an electronic or digital record produced as evidence under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is provided for in -

Under the Explanations added to Section 57 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, where an electronic or digital record is stored simultaneously or sequentially in multiple files, each such file is -

The principle that when one person, by his declaration, act or omission, has intentionally caused or permitted another to believe a thing to be true and act on it, he cannot afterwards deny its truth, is contained in which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under Section 146 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, a leading question, if objected to by the adverse party, may NOT ordinarily be asked in -

Under Section 104 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the burden of proof in a suit or proceeding lies on -

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, the definition of 'admission' is contained in which section?

In a criminal proceeding, a confession caused by an inducement, threat, coercion or promise proceeding from a person in authority is rendered irrelevant under which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, facts of which the Court must take judicial notice are enumerated in -

Under Section 74 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following is NOT a public document?

A judicial authority before which an action is brought in a matter which is the subject of an arbitration agreement is empowered to refer the parties to arbitration under which provision of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

A party desirous of obtaining interim measures of protection from a Court before the commencement of arbitral proceedings, during the proceedings, or at any time after the making of the arbitral award but before its enforcement, would move an application under:

The power of the arbitral tribunal itself to order interim measures of protection during the arbitral proceedings is contained in:

The principle that an arbitral tribunal may rule on its own jurisdiction, including ruling on any objections with respect to the existence or validity of the arbitration agreement (kompetenz-kompetenz), is embodied in:

Notwithstanding any prior agreement to the contrary, a person whose relationship with the parties, counsel or the subject-matter of the dispute falls within any of the categories specified in the Seventh Schedule is ineligible to be appointed as an arbitrator under:

In an arbitration other than an international commercial arbitration, the arbitral award shall be made by the arbitral tribunal within a period of:

Under Section 31(5) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, after the arbitral award is made:

An application for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 may not be made after three months have elapsed from the date of receipt of the award; however, the Court may, on sufficient cause being shown, entertain the application within a further period of:

Where the time for making an application to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34 has expired, or such application has been refused, the arbitral award shall be enforced in accordance with the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 in the same manner as if it were a decree of the Court. This is provided in:

An appeal lies under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 from which of the following orders?

In the absence of any agreement between the parties to the contrary, the arbitral proceedings in respect of a particular dispute commence on:

Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement enforceable by law is defined as a contract under:

Which of the following correctly states the position of an agreement entered into by a minor under the Indian Contract Act, as settled in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose?

A promise to compensate a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor is enforceable even without fresh consideration. This is an exception to the rule that an agreement without consideration is void, contained in:

Under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person is a contract of:

The liability of the surety under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, is:

Bankers, factors, wharfingers, attorneys of a High Court and policy-brokers may, in the absence of a contract to the contrary, retain goods bailed to them as security for a general balance of account. This general lien is provided under:

Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, which entitles the injured party to compensation for loss arising naturally in the usual course of things from a breach, is regarded as a statutory codification of the rule laid down in:

Under Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, where a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach, the aggrieved party is entitled to:

'Coercion' under Section 15 of the Indian Contract Act includes the committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by:

Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963 embodies which principle in respect of immovable property?

Under Section 25 of the Limitation Act, 1963, an easement of access of light or air to a building is acquired by prescription when it has been peaceably and openly enjoyed as an easement, as of right and without interruption, for a period of:

Where a special or local law prescribes for any suit, appeal or application a period of limitation different from that in the Schedule, Section 29(2) of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that:

The benefit of computing limitation from the cessation of disability under Section 6 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is available to a person who, at the time the right to institute a suit accrues, is:

The Limitation Act, 1963 (Act 36 of 1963) came into force with effect from:

Under Section 3 of the Limitation Act, 1963, a suit instituted after the prescribed period of limitation shall:

The power to condone delay on proof of 'sufficient cause' under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is available in respect of:

In Collector, Land Acquisition, Anantnag v. Mst. Katiji (1987) 2 SCC 107, the Supreme Court held that the expression 'sufficient cause' in Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963:

Under the substituted Section 20 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, where a contract is broken, the aggrieved party may:

Section 20A inserted by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018 provides that in a suit relating to a contract for an infrastructure project specified in the Schedule, the court:

Special Courts to try suits in respect of contracts relating to infrastructure projects under Section 20B of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 are designated by:

Under Section 20C of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a suit filed under the Act is to be disposed of:

Under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 (as amended in 2018), the minimum "Specified Value" of a commercial dispute, below which the Act does not apply, is fixed at not less than:

A suit relating to a commercial dispute that does NOT contemplate any urgent interim relief cannot be instituted unless the plaintiff first exhausts the remedy of pre-institution mediation. This requirement is contained in:

In M/s Patil Automation Pvt. Ltd. v. Rakheja Engineers Pvt. Ltd. (2022), the Supreme Court held that the pre-institution mediation contemplated under Section 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 is:

Under Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, partnership is the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by:

Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the receipt by a person of a share of the profits of a business:

A and B carry on a money-lending firm. Without authority from the firm, partner A submits a dispute of the firm to arbitration. With reference to a partner's implied authority under Section 19 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, such an act:

Section 22 of the POCSO Act, which punishes the making of a false complaint or false information solely to humiliate, extort, threaten or defame, expressly provides that:

Under Section 29 of the POCSO Act, where a person is prosecuted for an offence under Sections 3, 5, 7 or 9, the Special Court:

Under Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a mortgage where the mortgagor delivers possession to the mortgagee and authorises him to retain it and receive the rents and profits in lieu of interest or in payment of the mortgage-money, is termed: